BANK PO TEST

1

��MUKHERJEE NAGAR ��MUNIRKA ��UTTAM NAGAR�� DILSHAD GARDEN ��ROHINI��BADARPUR BORDER

: day 74 night 36 25 68 all for

I : all day 74 night 36 25 68 for

II : all 74 day night 36 25 68 for

III : all 74 day 68 night 36 25 for .

IV : all 74 day 68 for night 36 25

V : all 74 day 68 for 36 night 25

V

1. III bond 86 goal 12 33 like high 46

VII(1) bond 86 goal 46 like 12 33 bond 86 46 like 33 12

bond 86 46 33 like (5)

2. mind new 27 35 19 59 own tower

(1) V

3. IV dear 63 few 51 16 29 now

(1) (2) (3)

4. II car 73 18 25 wear 49 long for

(1) 18 25 wear 49 for car 73 (2) 73 18 car 25 wear 49 long for18 73 25 car wear 49 (5)

5. war 52 43 16 now 24

(1) (2) (3)

6. 53269718(1) (2) (3)

(5)

7.

I H G F E D C B I H G F E D C I H G F E

(1) I (2) B

8. TSFI

(1) (2) (3)

9. CHRONICLE

(1) (2) (3)

10.

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

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Direction (1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of inputand rearrangement.

Input: day 74 night 36 25 68 all forStep I: all day 77 night 36 25 68 forStep II: all 74 day night 36 25 68 forStep III: all 74 day 68 night 36 25 forStep IV: all 74 day 68 for night 36 25Step V: all 74 day 68 for 36 night 25and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions theappropriate step for the given input.

1. Step III of an Input : bond 86 goal 12 33 like high 46Which of the following will be step VII ?(1) bond 86 goal 46 like 12 33 high (2) bond 86 goal 46 high like 33 12(3) bond 86 goal 46 high 33 like 12 (4) There will be no such step(5) None of these

2. Input : mind new 27 35 19 59 own towerWhich of the following steps will be the last but one ?(1) VI (2) IV (3) V(4) VII (5) None of these

3. Step IV of an Input: dear 63 few 51 16 29 yes nowHow many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement ?(1) Four (2) Five (3) Three(4) Two (5) None of these

4. Step II of an input is : car 73 18 25 wear 49 long forWhich of the following is definitely the input ?(1) 18 25 wear 49 long for car 73 (2) 73 18 car 25 wear 49 long for(3) 18 73 25 car wear 49 long for (4) Cannot be determined(5) None of these

5. Input : war 52 and peace 43 16 now 24How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six(4) Seven (5) None of these

6. The positions of how many digits in the number 53269718 will remain unchanged if thedigits within the number are rearranged in ascending order ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two(4) Three (5) More than three

7. What should come next in the following letter series ?I H G F E D C B A I H G F E D C I H G F E(1) I (2) D (3) B(4) A (5) None of these

8. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TSFI using each letteronly once in each word ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two(4) Three (5) More than three

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHRONICLE each of which has asmany letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?(1) None (2) One (3) Two(4) Three (5) More than three

10. Pointing to a boy, Sunita said "He is the son of my grandfather's only son". How is the boyrelated to Sunita ?(1) Son (2) Nephew (3) Uncle(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Reasoning Test

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11. ‘R’, ‘T’, ‘W’, ‘B’,

15 W 12 8 R 2 B 6 = ?

(1)12

11(2)

3

23 (3) 27

(4) 3 (5)

12. 89123654

(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 1

(4) 2 (5)

13. ARCHIVE DSBGFWJ SYSTEMS

(1) TZTSTNF (2) TZTUTNF (3) TZTSFNT

(4) RXRSTNF (5)

(1) QS (2) RU (3) PS

(4) QU (5)

15. ARM TERM

(1) 23@9 (2) 249@ (3) 42@9

(4) 24@9 (5)

16-20):

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H K B, G C

F, C K A, K D K B

H, E

16.

(1) EKB (2) CHB (3) AGC

(4) FGD (5)

17. E

(1) A (2) C (3) G

(4) (5)

18. K

(1) C (2) H (3) F

(4) E (5)

19. H

(1) A (2) D (3) G

(4) F (5)

20. D

(1) K (2) H (3) E

(4) B (5)

21-26): I II

(1) I II

(2) II I

(3) I II

(4) I II

(5) I II

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11. If 'R' denotes 'divided by'; T denotes 'added to'; W denotes 'subtracted' from and 'B' denotes'multiplied by', then——15 W 12 T 8 R 2 B 6 = ?

(1) 11

12(2) 3

2

3(3) 27

(4) 3 (5) None of these 12. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 89123654 are interchanged.

Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Whichof the following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement ?(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 1(4) 2 (5) None of these

13. In a certain code ARCHIVE is written as DSBGFWJ. How is SYSTEMS written in that code?(l) TZTSTNF (2) TZTUTNF (3) TZTSFNT(4) RXRSTNF (5) None of these

14. 'MP' is related to 'HK' in the same way as 'WZ' is related to——?(1) QS (2) RU (3) PS(4) QU (5) None of these

15. In a certain code BASKET is written as '5%3#42' and ARM is written as '$%@9'. How is TERMwritten in that code?(1) 23@9 (2) 249@ (3) 42@9(4) 24@9 (5) None of these

Direction ( 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the center. B is fourth to the leftof G who is second to the right of C. F is fourth to the right of C and is second to the left of K. A isfourth to the right of K. D is not an immediate neighbour of either K or B. H is third to the right of E. 16. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and

the second persons ?(1) EKB (2) CHB (3) AGC(4) FGD (5) None of these

17. Who is fourth to the left of E ?(1) A (2) C (3) G

(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

18. Who is second to the right of K?

(1) C (2) H (3) F

(4) E (5) None of these

19. Who is third to the right of H ?

(1) A (2) D (3) G

(4) F (5) None of these

20. Who is fourth to the right of D ?

(1) K (2) H (3) E

(4) B (5) None of theseDirection (21-26). Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numberedI and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements aresufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and—

Give answer:(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in -statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data instatement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.(3) if the data either instatement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answerthe question.(4) if the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer thequestion, and(5) if the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.

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21.

I. ‘he is ha

II. ‘is she

22. P, Q, R, S

I. Q

II. S R

23.

I.

II.

24. R

I. M

II. M R

25. P,

I. T, K .

II. R, V

26. J M

I. M

II. J, M

27-32): (1), (2), (3)

(4)

(5), ‘

’,

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

27. NUBAQE

(1) 263$4# (2) 326$4# (3) 362$4#

(4) 362$3# (5)

28. FWZERA

(1) 5�l#7$ (2) 5��l#7$ (3) 5�17#$

(4) 511$#7$ (5)

29. HUBDIM

(1) ©6289% (2) ©2689% (3) ©6289©

(4) ©62©9% (5)

30. EMIRDP

(1) #%978� (2) #%9#8� (3) 7%9#8�

(4) #9%78� (5)

31. OREDHM

(1) @7#8©% (2) #7#8©% (3) @78#©%

(4) @7#@©% (5)

32. PQIMHZ

(1) �49%©1 (2) %49�©1 (3)�49�©1

(4) 949%©1 (5)

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21. How is 'sure' written in a code language ?

I. 'he is sure' is written as 'ja ha ma' in that code language.

II. 'is she sure' is written as 'kaja ma' in that code language.

22. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having different age, who is the youngest among them ?

I. Q is younger than only P.

II. S is older than only R.

23. On which day of the week did Sourav visit Delhi ?

I. Sourav visited Delhi after Monday but before Thursday but not on an odd day of the week.

II. Sourav visited Delhi before Friday but after Monday.

24. What is R's position from the left end in a row ?

I. M is tenth from the left end of the row.

II. There are sixteen children between M and H.

25. Town P is towards which direction of town T ?

I. Town T is towards South of town K which is towards West of town P.

II. Town R is towards South of town V and towards East of town T.

26. How is J related to M ?

I. M has only one brother and two sisters.

II. J is daughter of T who is wife of M.

Direction (27-32) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinationsof digits / symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4), You have to find out which of the four combinationscorrectly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditionsthat follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinationscorrectly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. 'None of these' as your answer.

(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the third letter is a vowel, their codes are to beinterchanged.

(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the fourth letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as thecode for the vowel.

(iii) If the second and the third letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for thethird letter.

27. NUBAQE

(1) 263$4# (2) 326$4# (3) 362$4#

(4) 362$3# (5) None of these

28. FWZERA

(1) 5�l#7$ (2) 5��l#7$ (3) 5�17#$

(4) 511$#7$ (5) None of these

29. HUBDIM

(1) ©6289% (2) ©2689% (3) ©6289©

(4) ©62©9% (5) None of these

30. EMIRDP

(1) #%978� (2) #%9#8� (3) 7%9#8�

(4) #9%78� (5) None of these

31. OREDHM

(1) @7#8©% (2) #7#8©% (3) @78#©%

(4) @7#@©% (5) None of these

32. PQIMHZ

(1) �49%©1 (2) %49�©1 (3)�49�©1

(4) 949%©1 (5) None of these

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33-38): ��, , %, ©

‘P, Q ’.

Q ’.

© ‘P, Q ’.

% Q ’.

� Q ’.

I, II, III

IV

33. R © K, K � M, M J

I. J � K II. M R III. M % R

(1) (2) I (3) II

(4) II III (5) III

34. R � B, B © N, N T

I. N R II. � B III. � R

(1) (2) I (3) II

(4) III (5) I II

35. W © K, K � R, R % N

I. N K II. R W III. W � N

(1) I II (2) II III (3) II III

(4) I III (5) I, II III

36. H W, W N, N % R

I. R � W II. N � W III. H R

(1) I II (2) II III (3) I III ( 4 )

I, II III (5)

37. Z % M, M F, F � D

I. F % Z II. F � Z III. D Z

(1) I (2) I II (3) II

(4) III (5)

38. D K, K % F, F © B

I. F � D II. B K III. B % K

(1) I (2) II (3) III

(4) II III (5) II III I

(39-44):

F 4 © J 2 E % M 5 W 9 I Q R 6 U H 3 Z 7 B 8 V # G $ Y D

39. (?)

JEM 59I RU3 ?

(1) 7AB (2) 7AT (3) 78

(4) ABV (5)

40.

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

41.

(1) M (2) T (3) #

(4) 2 (5)

42.

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

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Direction (33-38): In the following questions, the symbols ��, × , %, @ and © are used with the

following meaning as illustrated below:

'P × Q'means'P is not greater than Q'.'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.'P © Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.'P � Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which

of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answeraccordingly. 33. Statements: R © K , K ��M , M × J

Conclusions: I. J � K II. M @ R III. M % R(1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true(4) Only either II or III is true (5) Only III is true

34. Statements: R � B, B © N, N @ TConclusions: I. N @ R II. T � B III. T � R(1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true(4) Only III is true (4) Only I and II are true

35. Statements: W © K, K � R, R % NConclusions: I. N @ K II. R @ W III. W � N(1) OnlyI and II are true (2) Only either II or III is true (3) Only II and III are true(4) Only I and III are true(5) All I, II and IIIaret rue

36. Statements: H × W, W @ N, N % RConclusions: I. R � W II. N � W III. H @ R(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II and III are true (3) Only I and III are true(4) All I, II and III are true (5) None of these

37. Statements: Z % M, M × F, F � D

Conclusions: I. F % Z II. F � Z III. D @ Z

(1) Only I is true (2) Only either I or II is true (3) Only II is true

(4) Only III is true (4) None of these

38. Statements: D @ K, K % F, F © B

Conclusions: I. F � D II. B @ K III. B % K

(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true

(4) Only either II or III is true (5) Only either II or III and I are trueDirection (39-45): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

F 4 © J 2 E % M P 5 W 9 @ I Q R 6 U H 3 Z 7 � A T B 8 V # G $ Y D 39. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the

above arrangement?JEM 59I RU3 ?(1) 7AB (2) 7AT (3) �7 8(4) A B V (5) None of these

40. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediatelypreceded by a number but not immediately followed by a number?(1) None (2) One (3) Two(4) Three (5) More than three

41. Which of the following is the tenth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of theabove arrangement?(1) M (2) T (3) #(4) 2 (5) None of these

42. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediatelypreceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?(1) None (2) One (3) Two(4) Three (5) More than three

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43.

(1) ©24 (2) PWM (3) RI6

(4) RUQ (5) VG8

44.

(1) R (2) Q (3) U

(4)3 (5)

(45-50): I, II III

45.

I. II. III.

(1) (2) I (3) II

(4) III (5) I II

46.

I. II. III.

(1) (2) I (3) II

(4) III (5) I II

47.

I. II. III.

(1) (2) I (3) II

(4) III (5) II III

48.

I. II. III.

(1) (2) I (3) II

(4) III (5) I II

49.

I. II. III.

(1) I (2) II (3) III

(4) I II (5) I II III

50.

I. II. III.

(1) I II (2) I III

(3) II III (4) I, II III (5)

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43. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the abovearrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?(1) ©24 (2) PWM (3) RI6(4) RUQ (5) VG8

44. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be thefourteenth from the left end?(1) R (2) Q (3) U(4) 3 (5) None of these

Direction(45-50): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by threeconclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seemto be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of thegiven conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

45. Statements: Some tyres are ropes. Some ropes are tents. Some tents are walls.Some walls are buildings.

Conclusions: I. Some buildings are ropes. II. Some walls are ropes. III. Some tents aretyres. .

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows

(4) Only III follows (5) Only I and II follow

46. Statements: Some beads are rings. Some rings are bangles. All bangles are clothes. Allclothes are boxes.Conclusions: I. Some boxes are bangles. II. Some clothes are rings. III.Some bangles arebeads.


(4) Only III follows (5) Only I and II follow

47. Statements: All chairs are fires. Some fires are winds. All winds are nets. Some nets areclocks.

Conclusions: I. Some clocks are winds. II. Some nets are fires. III. Some winds are chairs.


(4) Only III follows (5) Only II and III follow

48. Statements: All desks are pillars. All pillars are circles. Some circles are squares. Somesquares are rectangles.

Conclusions : I. Some rectangles are pillars. II. Some circles are desks. III. Some squaresare desks.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows(4) Only III follows (5) Only I and II follow

49. Statements: All sticks are hammers. No hammer is dress. Some dresses are doors. Alldoors are cots.

Conclusions: I. Some cots are hammers. II. No cot is hammer. III. Some dresses are sticks.

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows

(4) Only either I or II follows (5) Only either I or II and III follow

50. Statements: Some plates are knives. All knives are chains. Some chains are wheels. Allwheels are poles.Conclusions: I. Some poles are chains. II. Some wheels are knives. III. Some chains areplates.(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I and III follow (3) Only II and III follow(4) All I, II and III follow (5) None of these

11


1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 34 5

1 2 34 5

1 2 34 5

4

7=

1 2 3

4 5

÷ × =

1 2 3 2

4 5

2 3 213 28 4 (3) 107 (?)� � � � �

1 2 3

4 5

× ÷ = ÷

1 2 3

4 5

2025 ÷ = 2 ÷

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 × ÷ 2 × ÷ 3 × ÷

4 × ÷ 5 × ÷

1

1

2

13

3

12

4

12

5

13

12


Directions: (51-55): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

number series?

51. 123 277 459 669 907 ?(1) 1179 (2) 1173 (3) 1167(4) 1169 (5) None of these

52. 456.5 407 368.5 341 324.5 ?(1) 321 (2) 319 (3) 317(4) 323 (5) None of these

53. 23 42.2 80.6 157.4 311 ?(1) 618.2 (2) 623.2 (3) 624.2(4) 616.6 (5) None of these

54. 36 154 232 278 300 ?(1) 304 (2) 313 (3) 308(4) 307 (5) None of these

55. 24 256 487 703 678 ?(1) 768 (2) 748 (3) 764(4) 742 (5) None of these

Directions (56-60) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

questions?

56. 85% of 4

7 of 6755 = ? + 1687

(1) 1586 (2) 1592 (3) 1594(4) 1582 (5) None of these

57. ÷ × =

(1) 256 (2) 4 (3) 2

(4) 16 (5) None of these

58. 2 3 213 28 4 (3) 107 (?)� � � � �

(1) 2 (2) 16 (3) 256(4) 4 (5) (256)2

59. (0.49)4 × (0.343)4 ÷ (0-2401)4 = (70÷ 100)? + 3

(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 4(4) 7 (5) None of these

60. 45% of 2025 ÷ 0.01 = (?)2 ÷ 25

(1) 3 (2) (81)2 (3) 225(4) 9 (5) 12

61. Which of the following is second largest?(1) 138.6 - 38.4 + 479.3 (2) 36.5 - 844.6 + 1289 (3) 931 - 564 + 156(4) 564 - 213 + 120 (5) 130 - 461 + 888

62. Which of the following is the largest? (You are not expect-ed to calculate the exact value.(1) (56 × 15) ÷ 42 (2) (25 × 72) ÷ 62 (3) (6 × 441) ÷ 72

(4) (28 × 78) ÷ 56 (5) (32 × 48) ÷ 2663. Which of the following is the smallest? (You are not expect-ed to calculate the exact value.

(1)

125

of 12509

� � � �

(2)

137

of 411213

� � � �

(3)

125

of 322119

� � � �

(4)

1215

of 41211

� � � �

(5)

1317

of 344413

� � � �

Airthmetic Ability

13


`

1 × × ÷ 2 × ÷ × 3 × ÷ ×

4 × × × 5 × ÷ ×

÷

1 2 3

4 5

`

1 ` 2 ` 3 `

4 ` 5

A 4

17

B

A

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

`

`

1 ` 2 ` 3 `

4 ` 5

I II

x > y x > y x < y

x < y x = y

I.15 9

�x x

= (x)1

2II. y10 - (36)5 = 0

I. 5x +2y = 96 II. 3(7x + 5y ) = 489

I.1

22 2441 111 (15)� �x II. 121 y2 + (6)3 = 260

I. 17x = (13)2 + 196 + (5)2 + 4x II. 9y -345 = 14 = 0

I. 3x2 - 13x + 14 = 0 II. y -7y + 12 = 0

I II

I II

II I

I II

I II

I II

I.

II.

14


64. The cost of 8 dozen of eggs is Rs.256.Which calculation in needed to find the cost of 9 eggs?(1) (9 × 256) × (8 ÷ 12) (2) (12× 256) ÷ (8 × 9 ) (3) (8 × 256) ÷ (9 × 12)(4) (9× 256) × (8 × 12) (5) (9 × 256) ÷ (8 × 12)

65. 24% of 4568 ÷ 8% of 246 is approximately equal to.

(1) 32 (2) 43 (3) 89

(4) 78 (4) 5566. A man sells calculator at the rate of Rs. 250 each which includes a profit of 14 per cent. What

amount of profit of will he earn in 19 days if he sells seven calculators per day?(1) Rs. 4665 (2) Rs. 4565 (3) Rs. 4545(4) Rs. 4655 (5) None of these

67. Circumference of a circle-A is times perimeter of a square. Area of the square is 784 sq cm.What is the area of another circle-B whose diameter is half the radius of circle circle-A?(1) 38.5 sq.cm (2) 156 sq.cm (3) 35.8 sq.cm(4) 616 sq.cm (5) None of these

68. Amit’s present age is their names Pratibha prc.scm 9/13 of his Father’s present age.’Tinsum of the present age of all of them is 150 years. What is the difference between Pratibhapresent age and Amit’s father’s present age?(1) 56 years (2) 64 years (3) 60 years(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

69. What value will you obtain if 25% of 2340 is subtracted from 4/9 of square of 36?(1) 9 (2) -18 (3) 18(4) -9 (5) 3

70. Varun got a monthly increment of 12 percent of Puja’s monthly salary. Puja’s monthly salary isRs.7800. Varun’s monthly salary before increment was Rs.6400.What amount will he earn infour months after his increment?(1) Rs.29344 (2) Rs.29434 (3) Rs.28434(4) Rs.28344 (5) None of these

Directions (71 -75) : In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. Youhave to solve both the equations and

Give answer if(1) x > y (2) x > y (3) x < y(4) x < y (5) x = y or the relationship .cannot be estab-lished

71. I.15 9

�x x

= (x)1

2II. y10 - (36)5 = 0

72. I. 5x +2y = 96 II. 3(7x + 5y ) = 489

73. I.1

22 2441 111 (15)� �x II. 121 y2 + (6)3 = 260

74. I. 17x = (13)2 + 196 + (5)2 + 4x II. 9y -345 = 14 = 0

75. I. 3x2 - 13x + 14 = 0 II. y -7y + 12 = 0

Directions (76-80) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statementsnumbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statementsare sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, whilethe data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, whilethe data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in either Statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficientto answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer thequestion.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answerthe question.

76. What is the minimum passing percentage in a test?I. Raman scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than

Raman.II. Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks.

15


x2 + y + z

I. 4x +3y + 5y = 60 2x =y. 2y = z II. 3x +3y + 2z = 34, 2x + 5y + 6z = 72

I.

II.

I.

II.

I. º

II. º

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

16


77. What is the value of A2 + y + z?I. 4x + 3y + 5z = 60and 2x = y, 2y = z II. 3x + 3y + 2z = 34, 2x + 5y + 6z = 72

78. Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap?I. Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and average weight of Raju and Pratap is

72 kg. Also Suraj is 78 kg, Raju is 68 kg and Binay is 46 kg.II. Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg, Raju is 68

kg and Vi-nay is 46 kg. All of them have different weight.79. What is the respective ratio between the length of a rect-angle and side of a square?

I. Area of the square is 576 sq. cm. and the area of the rectangle is 600 sq.cm.II. Breadth of the rectangle is half the side of the square.

80. What is the smaller angle of a parallelogram?I. Ratio between the angles of a triangle is 3 : 5 : 4 and the larger angle of the par-allelogram

is 34° more than the largest angle of the triangle.II. Larger angle of the paral-lelogram is 38° more than its smaller angle.

Directions (81-85) : Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :

Number, of Research papers and Articles published by six different scholars (Person) in

five different Journals

81. How much more approximate percentage of the number of Research papers that were publishedby Neeta in Educon as compared to the number of Research papers that were published byVijay in Eduforms?(1) 52 (2) 42 (3) 152(4) 147 (5) 47

82. What is the difference between the total number of Research papers published by Anand, Vijayand Neeta together in Educon and the total number of Articles published by Mohan, Naidu andRonit together in Edutrack?(1) 33 (2) 27 (3) 32(4) 29 (5) None of these

83. Who published third highest number of Research papers and Articles together in Eduforms ?(1) Anand (2) Vijay (3) Neeta(4) Mohan (5) Naidu

84. What is the average number of Research papers published by all the six scholars together inFrontier?(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 17(4) 15 (5) None of these

85. Total number of Research papers and Articles together published by Mohan in Edutrackis approximately what percentage of the total number of Articles published by all the six scholarstogether in New Era?(1) 145 (2) 117 (3) 137(4) 132 (5) 124

17


1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

=

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

HR

1 2 3

4 5

Centres at:

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18


Directions (86-90) : Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follows.

In a school there are total 120 staff members and 800 students. 65 per cent of the number of

staff mem-bers is teachers and remaining staff members are administrative officials. Out of .the

total number of students 45 per cent are girls. 20% of the number of girls can speak only Hindi.

Remaining girls can speak both Hindi and English. 3/4 of the number of boys can speak only Hindi.

Remaining boys can speak both Hindi and English. 2/3 of the number of teachers is male. 5/14 of

the number of administrative officials is female.

86. What is the difference between the number of boys (student) who can speak both Hindi and

English and the number of girls (student) who can speak both Hindi and English?

(1) 164 (2) 178 (3) 188


87. Total number of girls (student) is what percentage of the total number of staff members in the

school?

(1) 350 (2) 300 (3) 400


88. What is the difference between the total number of female administrative officials and female

teachers together and the number of male administrative officials?

(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 18


89. What is the respective ratio between the total number of teachers and the number of boys

(student) who can speak Hindi only?

(1) 11 : 56 (2) 13 : 54 (3) 13 : 56

(4) 11 : 54 (5) None of these

90. What is the total number of male administrative officials, female teachers and girls (student)

who can speak Hindi only?

(1) 125 (2) 115 (3) 127


Directions (91-95): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions.

Percentagewise distribution of employees in six departments of an Institution

Total Number of Employees = 12600

91. Number of employees in the department of Academic affairs is approximately what percent

more than the number of employees in Examination department?

(1) 39 (2) 29 (3) 12

(4) 139 (5) 112

92. If 30 per cent of the number of employees of research department is females. Then what is the

number of male employees in the research department?

(1) 1343 (2) 1232 (3) 1323


93. Number of employees in Exam-ination department is approximately what percentage of the

total number of employees in the department of HR and Academic affairs together?

(1) 69 (2) 65 (3) 61

(4) 55 (5) 51

19


1 2 3

4 5

HR

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

1 2 3

4 5

Centres at:

==================================================================================

20


94. What is the average number of employees in Accounts, Admission and Research department

together?

(1) 1722 (2) 1742 (3) 1786


95. What is the difference between the total number of employees in the department of HR and

Admission together and the total number of employees in Accounts and Examination

department together?

(1) 2268 (2) 2464 (3) 2286


Directions (96-100): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Runs scored by three different teams in five different cricket matches

96. Total runs scored by India and Australia in Match-4 together is approximately what percentage

of the total runs scored by England in all the five matches together?

(1) 42 (2) 18 (3) 36

(4) 24 (5) 28

97. In which match Is -the difference between the runs scored by Australia and England sec-ond

lowest?

(1) Match-1 (2) Match-2 (3) Match-3

(4) Match-4 (5) Match-5

98. In which match are the total runs scored by India and England together third highest/ lowest?

(1) Match-1 (2) Match-2 (3) Match-3

(4) Match-4 (5) Match-5

99. What is the respective ratio between the runs scored by In-dia in Match-5, Australia in”

Match-1 and England in Match-2?

(1) 11 : 13 : 7 (2) 11 : 7 : 13 (3) 11 : 3 : 9

(4) 11 :13 : 9 (5) None of these

100. What are the average runs scored by all the three teams in Match-3 together ?

(1) 280 (2) 270 (3) 275


21


(1) SSD (2) CDR (3) DVD

(4) Blue-ray (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

P2P

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

CDs, DVD blue-ray

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) SMTP (2) HTTP (3) FTP

(4) UDP (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

USB

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

___________RAM

(1) WRAM (2) NVRAM (3) V RAM

(4) ERAM (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) USB (5)

RAM

(1) RAM

(2) RAM

(3) RAM

(4) RAM

(5)

(1)

(2) RAM

(3) RAM

(4)

(5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

Centres at:

==================================================================================

22


101. Which of the following is not a type of optical media?(1) SSD (2) CDR (3) DVD

(4) Blue-ray (5) None of these102. Serif and san-serif are types of__________.

(1) images (2) Audio files (3) Video files

(4) Fonts (5) None of these

103. P2P is used for which type of internet service?(1) Online gaming (2) File sharing (3) Online gaming

(4) E-mail (5) None of these

104. How may values can a single bit have?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 8


105. CDs, DVDs, and blue ray discs are all types of_____________.(1) Disk (2) Harddisks (3) Magnetic Media

(4) Optical Media (5) None of these

106. Which protocol is used to deliver web pages to web browser?

(1) SMTP (2) HTTP (3) FTP

(4) UDP (5) None of these107. Which values passed in to function called?

(1) Constant (2) Parameters (3) Packets

(4) Headers (5) None of these

108. Which is small data storage device that used flash memory and has a built in USB connection?

(1) Jump Drives (2) Opereting system (3) Web server

(4) Spreatsheet pakage (5) All of the above

109. _______is a type of RAM that retains data after the host devices power is turned off.(1) WRAM (2) NVRAM (3) WRAM

(4) ERAM (5) None of these

110. Microsoft windows is ________.

(1) A web browser (2) An operating system (3) A web server

(4) A spreadsheet Package (5) None of these

111. All of the following statements concerning RAM are true EXCEPT:-

(1) RAM is the temporary holding space far all data and instructions that the computer useswhile it is on.

(2) At a minimum, you need enough RAM to run the operating system and whatever software

applications you are running.

(3) Adding more RAM will not improve system performance.

(4) The amount of RAM on the memory modules, in the computer, is referred to as physical

memory.(5) None of these

112. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning virtual memory?

(1) Virtual memory is the space on the hard drive where the operating system begins to store

data when it becomes memory bound.

(2) Accessing data’ from RAM is slower than accessing data from virtual memory?

(3) When it is using virtual memory, the operating system builds a file called the RAM file.(4) If a computer is memory-bound, adding more RAM will not solve the problem.

(5) sNone of these

113. storage refers to storage that loses its data when the power is turned off.

(1) Permanent (2) Volatile (3) Nonvolatile

(4) Virtual (5) None of these

COMPUTER

23


CPU RAM

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) rpm (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) MHz (3) GHz

(4) (5)

DSL

(1) DDSL (2) SDSL (3) ADSL

(4) BDSL (5)

(1) ISP (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) VeriSign (2) Verizon (3) SpamButcher

(4) SpamGuard (5)

(1) http. (2) HTML (3) TCP/IP

(4) FTP (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) DVD (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) SQL

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) 700 MB (2) 1 GB (3) 10 MB

(4) 1.44MB (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (NIC) (5)

Centres at:

==================================================================================

24


114. The time it takes a CPU to retrieve data from RAM is measured in:(1) milliseconds (2) microseconds (3) nanoseconds(4) picoseconds (5) None of these

115. The ____________ of the hard drive is the sum of seek time and latency (rotational delay).(1) rpm (2) access time (3) spin time(4) read time (5) None of these

116. The speed of a hard drive is measured in:(1) milliseconds (2) MHz (3) GHz(4) nanoseconds (5) None of these

117. DSL service, in which the maximum download speed is higher than the maximum uploadspeed, is known as:(1) DDSL (2) SDSL (3) ADSL(4) BDSL (5) None of these

118. When you are on the Internet, your browser-keeps track of the Web sites you have visited inthe ____________so that it can load them faster.(1) ISP (2) plug in (3) menu(4) cache (5) None of these

119. ______is an example of a security company that certifies that a company’s online transactionsare secure.(1) VeriSign (2) Verizon (3) Spam Butcher(4) Spam Guard (5) None of these

120. Which of the following is NOT a protocol?(1) http (2) HTML (3) TCP/IP(4) FTP (5) None of these

121. What is the term used to describe a set of instructions for a computer?

(1) Software (2) Printout (3) Procedure

(4) Output (5) None of these

122. Which of the following is NOT an input device?

(1) A DVD drive (2) A bar code reader (3) A keyboard

(4) A flat bed scanner (5) None of these

123. __________is the most widely used personal computer software.(1) Database management (2) Word processing (3) SQL(4) All of the above (5) None of these

124. ______ is a set of programs that lies between applications software and the hardware.(1) An operating system (2) Systems software (3) Application software(4) All of the above (5) None of these

125. The most important program in the operating system is the_____ which manages the entiresystem.(1) Kernel (2) Platform (3) Software(4) User (5) None of these

126. Which of the following pointing devices is NOT usually associated with a notebook computer?(1) Touchpad (2) Pointing stick (3) Joystick(4) Trackball (5) None of these

127. Which feature on a monitor display system determines the clarity or sharpness of the output?(1) Resolution (2) Number of cathode ray tubes(3) Refresh rate (4) Screen size (5) None of these

128. Which of the following best matches the storage capacity of a typical floppy disk?(1) 700MB (2) 1GB (3) 10 MB(4) 1.44 MB (5) None of these

129. The concentric rings that are magnetically laid on a disk surface are called:(1) Tracks (2) Clusters (3) Partitions(4) Sectors (5) None of these

130. Which of the following is NOT considered as a network communication device?(1) Router (2) Data base (3) Modem(4) Network interface card (NIC) (5) None of these

25


(1) Modulator Demodulator (2) Memory Demagnetization(3) Monetary Devaluation Exchange Mechanism

(4) Monetary Demarcation (5)

(1) Ctrl+ H (2) Ctrl+R (3) Ctrl+9

(4) Ctrl+- (5)

(1) CPU RAM (2) RAM ROM (3) CPU Hard Disk

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) CD

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) Mac OS

(4) (5)

OSA (1) Open System Authentication (2) Open Source Authentication

(3) Open System Authorization (4) Open Soure Automation

(5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

TTL

(1) Technical Talk Language (2) Transparent Transfer layer

(3) Time To Live (4) True Technology Live (5)

Save as Function

(1) save save File

Name Create

(2) save

(3) Microsoft word

(4) CD

(5)

(1) Excel (2) Powre Point (3) World

(4) Access (5)

Centres at:

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26


131. Modem stands for ____________.

(1) Modulator Demodulator (2) Memory Demagnetization

(3) Monetary Devaluation Exchange Mechanism

(4) Monetary Demarcation (5) None of these

132. Which shortcut key is used to hide entire row in Excel?

(1) Ctrl + H (2) Ctrl+ R (3) Ctrl + 9

(4) Ctrl+ - (5) None of these

133. Cache memory acts between____________.

(1) CPU and RAM (2) RAM and ROM (3) CPU and hard disk

(4) All (5) None of these

134. The design of an integrated circuit is also called __________.

(1) Chip space (2) Module design (3) Chip set

(4) Logic layout (5) None of these

135. Virtual memory consist of ___________.

(1) Static RAM (2) Dynamic RAM (3) Magnetic Memory

(4) All of the above (5) None of these

136. A binary digit is called a ______________.

(1) Bit (2) Byte (3) Number

(4) Character (5) None of these

137. Which of the following is a main memory?

(1) Secondary memory (2) Auxiliary memory (3) Cache memory

(4) Virtual memory (5) None of these

138. A system program that translates and executes an instruction simultaneously is ______.

(1) Compiler (2) Interpreter (3) Assembler

(4) Operating system (5) None of these

139. Which of the following is an example of an input device?

(1) Scanner (2) Speaker (3) CD

(4) Printer (5) None of these

140. The two broad categories of software

(1) Word processing and spreadsheet (2) Transaction and application

(3) Windows and Mac OS (4) System and application (5) None of these

141. OSA stands for-

(1) Open System Authentication (2) Open Source Authentication

(3) Open System Authorization (4) Open Source Automation

(5) None of these

142. A mobile computer without a keyboard but has a monitor that forms one Side of device is

known as —

(1) Notebook (2) Laptop (3) Tablet

(4) Mini PC (5) None of these

143. What is the term TTL?

(1) Technical Talk Language (2) Transparent Transfer Layer

(3) Time To Live (4) True Technology Lives (5) None of these

144. When would you use the Save As Function?

(1) When you are staying a document for the first time and you need to choose a folder for the

document & create file name for it.

(2) Every time you want to save something.

(3) Only when working with Microsoft word document.

(4) Only when you want to burn files on to CD.

(5) None of these

145. If you want to create an animated presentation, what would be the best program to use?

(1) Excel (2) Power Point (3) World

(4) Access (5) None of these

27


MIDI

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

.INI extension

(1) Image file (2) System File (3) Hyper text realted file

(4) Image color matching profile file (5)

Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

1996 Hotmail

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

Centres at:

==================================================================================

28


146. In which year was MIDI introduced?

(1) 1987 (2) 1983 (3) 1973


147. INI extension refers usually to what kind of file?

(1) Image file (2) System file (3) Hyper text related file

(4) Image color matching profile file (5) None of these

148. Who create Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)?

(1) Paul Zimmerman (2) Tim Berners lee (3) Marc Andressen

(4) Ken Thompson (5) None of these

149. Who Co-founded hotmail in 1996 and then sold the company to Microsoft?

(1) Shawn Fanning (2) Ada Buron Lovelace (3) Sabeer Bhatia

(4) Ray Tomlison (5) None of these

150. Where is the headquarter of Intel Located?

(1) Redmond, Washington (2) Tucson, Arizona

(3) Santa Clara, California (4) Richmond Virginia (5) None of these

29


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

Centres at:

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30


151. Which among the following is true "Budget Deficit"?(1) This is gap between the government total spending and sum of its revenue receipts and non debt capital receipts.(2) It is the difference between the estimated public expenditure and public revenue.(3) It is the difference between capital expenditure and capital receipt(4) It is the difference between the fiscal deficit and interest payment(5) None of these

152. Which among the following is true about Money?(1) It refers to that money which is made available to the borrowers at high rate of interest(2) It refers to that money which is made available to the borrowers at a low rate of interest(3) The foreign money which has the tendency to migrate towards more profit oriented places(4) Both 1 and 3(5) None of these

153. Which among the following is true about Money Market?(1) The term money market refers to the totality of financial institutions which deal with long-term funds in the economy.(2) The term money market refers to the totality of financial institutions which deal with short-term funds in the economy(3) The term money market to the totality of financial institution which deal with medium term funds in the economy(4) Both 1 and 3(5) None of these

154. Scheduled Bank is that bank which is(1) Nationalised (2) Non Nationalised(3) Based at Foreign country (4) Included in the second schedule of RBI(5) None of these

155. The centre has granted permission to the Punjab Governemt to export wheat to which countryin the wake of the state facing a wheat glut and warehouses overflowing?(1) Bangladesh (2) China (3) Pakistan(4) Sri Lanka (5) None of these

156. To which country India had added US $ 270mm for the development project of making 50,000units housing units Tamil Migrants?(1) Maldives (2) Afghanistan (3) Sri Lanka(4) Bangladesh (5) None of these

157. Which among the following countries will train 300 Indian teachers in Mandarian langaugefor more than 100 central board of secondary education school to introduce courses of thelanguage?(1) Taiwan (2) Singapore (3) Japan(4) China (5) None of these

158. Who among the following retired from International Cricket on 18th August 2012?(1) V.V.S. Laxman (2) Rahul Dravid (3) Brett Lee(4) Ajay Jadeja (5) None of these

159. Hashim Qandil was appointed as the Prime Minister of_________.(1) Maldives (2) Malaysia (3) Egypt(4) Libya (5) None of these

160. RBI has asked the banks to convert the existing 'no frills' accounts into______(1) Saving Bank Deposit Accounts (2) Basic Saving Bank Deposit Account(3) Basic Fixed Deposit Accounts (4) Basic Current Accounts(5) None of these

GENERAL AWARENESS

31


(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

BCSBI

(1) Banking Costs and Standard Board of India

(2) Banking Codes and Standard Board of India

(3) Banking Codes and Statistics Board of India

(4) Broad Codes and Standard Board of India

(5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

Centres at:

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32


161. Karrar is an unmanned combat air vehicle produced for the military of ________.(1) Pakistan (2) Afghianstan (3) Iraq(4) Iran (5) None of these

162. According to the mobile banking conceptual model Mobile Banking can be said to consist tothree inter-realted concepts. Which of the following is among those three inter-related concepts.(1) Mobile Accounting (2) Mobile Brokerage(3) Mobile Financial Information (4) All of the above (5) None of these

163. Which of following inaguarated the Second International Buddhist Conclave at Varanasi?(1) Union Minister of Labour and Employment, Mallikarjun Kharge(2) Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting, Ambika Soni(3) Union Minister of Finance, Palaniappan Chidambaram(4) Union Minister of Tourism, Subodh Kant Sahai(5) None of these

164. Who is the ninth recipent of the James C Morgan Global Humanitarian Award 2012?(1) Dalai Lama (2) Robert May (3) N.R. Narayana Murthy(4) Michael Milken (5) None of these

165. What is the full form of BCBSI?(1) Banking Costs and Standard Board of India(2) Banking Codes and Standard Board of India(3) Banking Codes and Statstics Board of India(4) Broad Codes and Standard Board of India(5) None of these

166. A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed on 1st October 2012 between India and..................... to strength the long-term bilateral cooperation and relationship on rail and roadinfrastructure.(1) Australia (2) Pakistan (3) England(4) China (5) None of these

167. What is Cluster financing ?(1) Extending financial services to companies(2) Extending services to Small and Medium Enterprises(3) Extending fiancial services for poor farmers(4) Extending finanical services to the whole economy(5) None of these

168. Which of the following has been crowned as the Miss World 2012 at a gala ceremony held inManagolia in August 2012?(1) Yu Wenxia (2) Sophie Moulds (3) Jessica Kahawaty(4) Vanya Mishra (5) None of these

169. Which of the following banks is covered under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006?(1) All Scheduled Commercial Banks(2) Regional Rural Commerical Banks(3) Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks(4) All of the above(5) None of the above

170. Which of the following functions can be performed with the help of ''Mobile Banking"?(1) Transactions like fund transfers (2) Purchasing tickets(3) Cheque book request (4) Utility bill payments(5) All of these

171. A new facility "Cash on Mobile" has been lunched by a Bank as per which we need not to carryATM card to withdraw cash. What is the name of the Bank which has launched the Scheme?(1) Punjab National Bank (2) IndusInd Bank (3) Canara Bank(4) State Bank of India (5) None of these

172. The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is working with ________to create a networkof 14 lakh micro ATMs across the country.(1) State Bank of India (2) Reserve Bank of India(3) Indian Bank's Association (4) All of the above (5) None of these

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(1) (2) (3)(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(1) A (2) B (3) B C

(4) A, B, C (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

CAMELS

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

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173. National Payment Corporation of India is an umbrella institution for all the ________ in thecountry.(1) Wholesale Payment System (2) Retail Payment System (3) Small Scale Payments(4) All of these (5) None of these

174. Which of the following Tribunal was setup to deal with the deal with matters related toEnviornment?(1) National Ecosystem Tribunal (2) National Eco Friendly(3) National Green Tribunal (4) National Enviornment Tribunal(5) None of these

175. Eric Hobsbawn recently passed away. He was a famous-(1) Historian (2) Scientist (3) Mathematician(4) Sportsperson (5) None of these

176. Which of the following publishes "Economic Outlook 2012-2013"?(1) Government of India (2) Planning Commission(3) Economic Advisory Counil (4) Reserve Bank of India(5) None of these

177. The term "Book Building" is related to which of the following?(1) Takeover (2) Goodwill of company(3) Economic Advisory Council (4) Reserve Bank of India(5) None of these

178. Which of the following is/are true about Certificate of Deposit?A. The minimum size of issue is Rs. 1 LakhB. They are issued at the discount to the face valueC. Banks do not have the freedom to issue CDs as per thier requirements(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) A and B(4) B and C (5) A, B and C

179. Which country is on the top position in the Global Competitiveness index 2012-13 of WorldEconomic Forum?(1) India (2) Switzerland (3) America(4) China (5) None of these

180. Who won Japanese Grand Prix 2012?(1) Jenson Button (2) Fernado Alonso (3) Lewis Hamilton(4) Michael Schumacher (5) Sebastian Vettel

181. On which of the following the supreme court had lifted the ban recently?(1) Sugar (2) Rice (3) Tiger Tourism(4) Gutka (5) None of these

182. Which of the following is also known as Demat Account?(1) Demarginalizing Account (2) Demarcate Account (3) Democratic Account(4) Dematerialised Account (5) None of these

183. Who is the Lender of Last Resort (LORL) in India?(1) Government of India (2) State Government (3) Prime Minister(4) Reserve Bank of India (5) None of these

184. Which among following is the current reverse repo rate?(1) 7% (2) 8% (3) 9%(4) 7.7% (5) 8.5%

185. Which among the following is currency of China?(1) Yen (2) Rufiyaa (3) Yaun(4) Dollar (5) None of these

186. Who has been conferred with Man Booker Prize 2012?(1) Julian Branes (2) Howard Jacobson (3) Arvind Adiga(4) Hilary Mantel (5) None of these

187. Which country hosted Twenty-20 World Cup 2012?(1) India (2) Bangladesh (3) Australia(4) West Indies (5) None of these

188. Which of the following is represented by the letter 'L' in the abbreviation CAMELS a ratingsystem used in financial world?(1) Liquidity (2) Loans (3) Leadership(4) Liabilities (5) None of these

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(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (5)

FERA FEMA

(A) FERA FEMA

(B) FEMA FERA

(C) FEMA RBI

(1) A B (2) B C (3)

(4) A C (5)

SBI SBI

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

PURA

(1) Provision for Urban Amenities in Rural Areas

(2) Project for Urban Amenities in Rural Areas

(3) Provision for Urban Amenities in Restricted Areas

(4) Provision for Upper Amenities in Rural Areas

(5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

(1) (2) (3)

(4) (5)

IEPF

Investor Education and Protection Fund Investor Employed and Power Fund

Interest Education and Preserve Fund Investor Employed and Preserve Fund

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189. What are the main objectives of SEZ (Special Economic Zone)?(1) Generation of additional economic activity(2) Promotion of import of goods and services

(3) Promotion of disinvestment from domestic and foreign sources(4) Creation of employment opportunities(5) Only 1 and 4

190. When is any country's balance of payment in its favour?(1) When imports are greater than exports.(2) When exports are greater than imports.(3) When exports and exports both are equal.(4) When both exports and imports are increasing.(5) None of these

191. About FERA/FEMA which of the following statement is right?(A) FERA/FEMA, both laws are associated with Foreign Exchange(B) FEMA replaced FERA in 2002(C) FEMA is regulated by RBI(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) All are true(4) A and C (5) None of these

192. Parliament has passed SBI (Amendment Bill) 2011, which changes the minimum level ofshare of the government in SBI's equity?(1) From 51% to 55% (2) From 55% to 52% (3) From 74% to 51%(4) From 55% to 49% (5) None of these

193. When is International Women's Day celebrated?(1) 15th March (2) 8th March (3) 22nd March(4) 8th April (5) None of these

194. Given the full form of the following PURA.(1) Provision for Urban Amenities in Rural Areas

(2) Project for Urban Amenities in Rural Areas(3) Provision for Urban Amenities in Restricted Areas(4) Provision for Upper Amenities in Rural Areas(5) None of these

195. The...........Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement was held in Tehran, Iran.(1) 15th (2) 17th (3) 14th

(4) 16th (5) None of these196. Which among the following countries has joined the World Trade Organisation as a member

on August 22, 2002?(1) China (2) Libya (3) Russia(4) Ukraine (5) None of these

197. Which among the following countries had successfully test fired a new generation inter-continental ballistic missile 28, 2012?(1) Russia (2) France (3) Pakistan(4) China (5) None of these

198. Which among the following countries ranked first in number of tobacco consumers globally?(1) India (2) China (3) Brazil(4) Russia (5) None of these

199. Which among the following is the capital of Mauritius?(1) Abuja (2) Tripoli (3) Port Louis(4) Ulan Bator (5) None of these

200. What is the full form of IEPF?(1) Investor Education and Protection Fund(2) Investor Employee and Power Fund(3) Interest Education and Preserve Fund(4) Invesior Employee and Preserve Fund(5) None of these

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Direction (201-210). In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, oneof which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The continuing economic crisis has put central banks and governments the world over into(201) waters. For the industrialized West, the question seems to be a choice between economicstimulus and jobs, in the hope of creating a softer landing, or a swift shock at the hands of the freemarkets, in the hope of getting through the (202) more quickly. In emerging markets, the questionis how to deal with being the focal point for investors looking to maximise returns.

Specifically, for the Federal Reserve in the United States, that means (203) hundreds ofbillions of dollars into the markets - buying Treasury bills to increase liquidity. In Europe the concernis that monetary union may be at risk due to the strains posed by euro-zone countries that are(204) in (205). In Asia, on the other hand, economies are surging, but the prospect of hot moneyflowing into the region could potentially spell (206) due to overheating.

Fears that the Fed’s second round of quantitative easing may lead to a faster pace of (207)may be (208). US unemployment remains persistently high at around 10%, while inflation remainsastoundingly low at 1 % or less, the slowest on record. That’s despite the Fed’s earlier injection of $1.7 trillion into the financial system to avert an economic depression in the wake of the globalfinancial crisis.

In contrast to the Fed’s quantitative easing, the European Central Bank has reduced liquidityin the European banking system by some 350 billion Euros during the past five months. This reflectsthe central bank’s (209) in the improved stability of the banking system and easier (210) to capital.201. (1) tested (2) unpredictable (3) under (4) unquestionable (5) uncharted202. (1) downturn (2) spectrum (3) options (4) hope (5) drama203. (1) sucking (2) pumping (3) forming (4) blocking (5) promoting204. (1) mired (2) safe (3) above (4) unhappy (5) out205. (1) market (2) trouble (3) debt (4) surplus - (5) manner206. (1) positive (2) negative (3) trouble (4) growth (5) process207. (1) cost (2) depreciation (3) cooperation (4) inflation (5) rate208. (1) challenged (2) overstated (3) perfect (4) predicted (5) simple209. (1) weakness (2) strength (3) correction (4) contract (5) confidence210. (1) denial (2) approval (3) appreciation (4) access (5) disposal211-215. Read the following passage based on an Interview to answer the given questions basedon it. Certain word(s) are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of thequestions.

A spate of farmer suicides linked to harassment by recovery agents employed by micro financeinstitutions (MFIs) in Andhra Pradesh spurred the state government to bring in regulation to protectconsumer interests. But, while the Bill has brought into sharp focus the need for consumer protection,it tries to micro-manage MFI operations and in the process it could scuttle some of the crucialbenefits that MFIs bring to farmers, says the author of Microfinance India, State Of The SectorReport 2010. In an interview he points out that prudent regulation can ensure the original goal ofthe MFIs — social uplift of the poor.Do you feel the AP Bill to regulate MFIs is well thought out ? Does it ensure fairness to theborrowers and the long-term health of the sector ?

The AP Bill has brought into sharp focus the need for customer protection in four criticalareas First is pricing. Second is lender’s liability — whether the lender can give too much loanwithout assessing the customer’s ability to pay. Third is the structure of loan repayment - whetheryou can ask money on a weekly basis from people who don’t produce weekly incomes. Fourth is thepractices that attend to how you deal with defaults.

But the Act should have looked at the positive benefits that institutions could bring in, andwhere they need to be regulated in the interests of the customers. It should have brought only thosefeatures in.

Say you want the recovery practices to be consistent with what the customers can reallymanage. If the customer is aggrieved and complains that somebody is harassing him, then thosecomplaints should be investigated by the District Rural Development Authority.

Instead what the Bill says is that MFIs cannot go to the customer’s premises to ask forrecovery and that all transactions will be done in the Panchayat office. With great difficulty, MFIs

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brought services to the door of people. It is such a relief for the customers not to be spending timeout going to banks or Panchayat offices, which could be 10 km away in some cases. A facility whichhas brought some relief to people is being shut. Moreover, you are practically telling the MFI whereit should do business and how it should do it.

Social responsibilities were in-built when the MFIs were first conceived. If MFIs go forprofit with loose regulations, how are they different from moneylenders ?

Even among moneylenders there are very good people who take care of the customer’scircumstance and there are really bad ones. A large number of the MFIs are good and there aresome who are coercive because of the kind of prices and processes they have adopted. ButMoneylenders never got this organised. They did not have such a large footprint. An MFI brought inorganisation, it mobilized the equity it brought in commercial funding. It invested in systems. Itappointed a large number of people. But some of them exacted a much higher price than they shouldhave. They wanted to break even very fast and greed did take over in some cases. Are the for-profitMFIs the only ones harassing people for recoveries ?

Some not-for-profit outfits have also adopted the same kind of recovery methods. That maybe because you have to show that you are very efficient in your recovery methods and that yourportfolio is of a very high quality if you want to get commercial funding from a bank.

In fact, among for-profits there are many who have sensible recovery practices. Some havefortnightly recovery, some have monthly recovery. So we have differing practices. We just describea few dominant ones and assume every for-profit MFI operates like that. How can you introduceregulations to ensure social upliftment in a sector that is moving towards for-profit models ?

I am not really concerned whether someone wants to make a profit or not. The bottom-linefor me is customer protection. The first area is fair practices. Are you telling your customers howthe loan is structured ? Are you being transparent about your performance ? There should also be alender’s liability attached to what you do. Suppose you lend excessively to a customer withoutassessing their ability to service the loan, you have to take the hit.

Then there’s the question of limiting returns. You can say that an MFI cannot have a returnon assets more than X, a return on equity of more than Y. Then suppose there is a privately promotedMFI, there should be a regulation to ensure the MFI cannot access equity markets till a certainamount of time. MFIs went to markets perhaps because of the need to grow too big too fast. Thegovernment thought they were making profit off the poor, and that’s an indirect reason why theydecided to clamp down on MFIs If you say an MFI won’t go to capital market, then it will keep politicalcompulsions under rein.211 Which of the following best explains “Structure of loan repayment” in this context of the first

question Asked to the author ?(1) Highest interest rate (2) Payment on weekly basis(3) Giving loan without assessing ability to pay (4) Method of dealing with defaults(5) Total amount of loan

212. The author is of the view that ——————(1) the bill to regulate MFIs is not needed(2) the bill neglects the interests of the customers(3) the positive aspects of MFIs should also be considered(4) most of the MFIs are not good(5) MFIs must be told what and where they should do business

213. One of the distinct positive feature of MFIs is that ———————(1) they brought services to the door of people (2) they dealt with default very firmly(3) they provided adequate customer protection (4) they are governed by the local people(5) they have highly flexible repayment plan

214. What is the difference between MFIs and moneylenders ?(1) There is no difference(2) Marge number of moneylenders are good whereas only a few MFIs are good(3) Moneylenders gave credit at lower rate of interest than that of MFIs(4) MFIs adopted a structure and put a process in place, which was not the case with

moneylenders(5) Moneylender appointed large number of local people as against more outside people in MFIs

215. Which of the following is positive outcome of the AP Bill to regulate MFIs ?(1) The banks have started this service in remote areas(2) It highlighted some areas of customer protection(3) It highlighted the bad practices being followed by moneylenders(4) MFIs invested in systems and brought in commercial funding(5) It will help convert MFIs into small banks

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216. The author is recommending —————(1) Not-for profit MFIs(2) For-profit MFIs(3) Stoppage of commercial funding to MFIs(4) Customer satisfaction irrespective of ‘Not-for profit’ or ‘for-profit MFIs(5) Public sector promoted MFIs

217. Why did MFIs go to the equity markers ?(1) Top repay the loan (2) To lower interest rate(3) There were political compulsions (4) To become a public sector institution(5) To grow very fast

218. Which of the following has not been indicated as one of the features of fair practices forcustomer protection ?(1) Providing information about loan structuring(2) MFIs should also be held liable for some of their actions(3) Not to raise money from capital market(4) MFIs should also inform public about their own performance also(5) To provide credit as per the rational assessment of their ability to service the loan

219. Which of the following could possibly be most plausible reason for banning recovery by goingto customer’s premises ?(1) To protect the family members(2) To protect the customer from harassment and coercion(3) To reduce the undue expenses of MFIs resulting in lower interest rates(4) To account systematically the money recovered in the books of accounts(5) To keep Panchayat office out of these transactions

Direction (220-223). Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/

group of words printed in bold.

220. manage (1) afford (2) assess (3) thrust (4) administer (5) use221. exacted (1) perfected (2) demanded (3) estimated (4) corrected (5) accurate222. scuttle (1) delay (2) mix (3) shuffle (4) destroy (5) smoothen223. spurred (1) agitated (2) instigated (3) reflected (4) disapproved(5) promptedDirection (224-225). Choose the word or group of words which is most opposite in meaning of

the word printed in bold.

224. under rein (1) under wrap (2) without target (3) let loose (4) no clout (5) under cloud.225. coercive (1) gentle (2) promoting (3) progressive (4) natural (5) opinionatedDirection (226-231). Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the

proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Two of the best-performing major economies in 2010 were China and Brazil, with growthestimated at 7.5% and 10.5% respectively.

(B) Despite that limp growth, major US stock market indexes are up between 11 % and 20%for the year.

(C) Even knowing where economies are headed sometimes is of no help to an investor.(D) It is hard to anticipate the direction of financial markets.(E) But as of December, stock markets of both nations were in the red for the year.(F) By contrast, the US economy is likely to have expanded at only about 2.6% for the year.

226. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

227. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E (5) F

228. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence ?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) F

229. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

230. Which of the following would be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence ?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

231. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?(1) A (2) B (3) D (4) E (5) F

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Direction (232-235). Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the propersequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Add the incremental loans to the basic metals and metal product industry, which accountfor another 14.5% of loans to industry and over 80% of the increase in loans to industrythis fiscal is accounted for.

(B) RBI decision to publish data on sectoral deployment of bank credit every month will providemuch-needed detail.

(C) Of the total increase in non-food credit, infrastructure loans accounted for 37%.(D) For instance, the data show that while bank credit to industry increased by 11.7% this

year, as much as two-thirds of that increase is on account of lending to infrastructure.(E) This will help us to gauge which sector of the economy are doing well.

232. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

233. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?(1) A (2) B (3) Either A or E (4) D (5) E

234. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

235. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Direction 236-240. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in itor a wrong word has been used. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence which hasbeen printed in bold and has been numbered (1), (2), (3) or (4). The number of that part is theanswer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, ifany.)236. The convergence of (1)/Indian accounting standards with International Financial Reporting

Standards (IFRS) beginning (2)/in April is expecting to (3)/see power companies strugglingwith significant (4)/ first-time adoption impact. No error (5)

237. Researchers at (1)/the Indian Institute of Science (HSc), Bangalore, are mapping (2)/India’ssolar hot spots-where round-the-year (3)/sunlight makes it viable of (4)/companies to setup solar power plants. No error (5)

238. Though their qualifications span a diverse (1)/range, there is an equal (2)/number ofgraduates and those who have (3)/just completed School, each set making up (4)/close to30% of these households. No error (5)

239. As if (1)/the most dangerous moment for any dictatorship is when (2)/it starts to (3)/reformNorth Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head.(4)/ No error (5)

240. It so happens (1)/that this happy campy ritual is their way of life (2)/and one into which(3)/ they dont particularly welcome (4)/voyeuristic intrusions. No error (5)

Direction (241-250): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error init. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part will be theanswer.If there is ‘No error’, mark (5) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

241.A recycling plant in close proximity to (1)/ the residential area can pose (2)/ serious threatsfrom residents (3)/ by leaving behind persistent pollutants. (4)/ No error (5)

242.The government has the obligation (1)/ to provide basic infrastructure facilities (2)/ toregulatingthe process of (3)/ urbanization in the country. (4)/ No error (5)

243.Bharatpur is transforming into (1)/ India’s most fastest growing bird sanctuary (2)/ attractingthousands of rare migratory birds (3)/ from Europe and Siberia. (4)/ No error (5)

244.Plagued by huge losses, (1)/ full service airlines are struggling (2)/ to cope with the competition(3)/ from low cost airlines. (4)/ No error (5)

245.Volunteers of an NGO (1)/ interacted with school students (2)/ to spread awareness about (3)/environment related issues. (4)/ No error (5)

246.The Union health minister said that (1)/ there was an acute shortage of (2)/ health personnelin rural areas (3)/ who needed to be addressed urgently. (4)/ No error (5)

247.Even though most of India’s youth (1)/ lives in villages, many people considers (2)/ the onesroaming in dazzling multiplexes (3)/ as their true reflection. (4)/ No error (5)

248.The RBI has proposed to introduce (1)/ polymer notes after taking into considering (2)/ thecost and longevity (3)/ associated with their manufacturing. (4)/ No error (5)

249.Some genuine issues exist (1)/ with the newly adopted (2)/ system and needs to (3)/ be examinedseriously.(4) / No error (5)

250.Whether or not to confront (1)/ them about their role (2)/ in the matter is a decision (3)/whichis yet to take. (4)/ No error (5)

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BANK PO TEST

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