VET-Pharma Q_A
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Transcript of VET-Pharma Q_A
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1
PHARMACOLOGY Q&A
____1. Large doses of corticosteroids may produce:
a. nephritis
b. hepatopathy
c. encephalomalacia
d. neutropenia
e. amaurosis
____2. An example of a long-acting insulin is:
a. semi-lente insulin
b. lente insulin
c. insulin injection USP
d. protamine zinc insulin
e. isophane insulin
____3. Vasopressin acts on the cells of the renal collecting
duct by:
a. inhibiting microtubule formation
b. decreasing permeability to water of
the luminal membrane of the cell
c. stimulating formation of adenylate
cyclase
d. inhibiting phosphodiesterase
e. blocking chloride reabsorption
____4. The principal barrier to absorption of drugs applied
topically to the skin is:
a. the stratum germinativum
b. the stratum corneum
c. the stratum spinosum
d. the basement membrane
e. sebum
____5. Excretion of drugs by the kidneys is:
a. unaffected by variation in renal blood flow
b. generally more rapid if the drug is not extensively protein
bound
c. more rapid with drugs that are actively secreted by tubular
cells
d. always increased by administration of diuretics
e. a minor pathway for elimination of drugs
____6. The most fundamental action of steroidal hormones is:
a. modification of inflammation
b. lysis of lymphocytes in the blood
c. stimulation of synthesis of enzymes by target cells
d. deposition of depot fate. increased calcium concentration in
the
blood
____7. The corticosteroid with negligible effect on electrolyte
and water balance is:
a. cortisol
b. aldosterone
c. prednisolone
d. fludrocortisonee. dexamethasone
____8. Procaine is destroyed in the body by:
a. pseudocholinesterase
b. succinyl dehydrogenase
c. glucuronyl transferase
d. oxidation
e. azo reductase
____9. A toxic manifestation of dibucaine toxicity is:
a. agranulocytosis
b. coma
c. seizures
d. urticaria
e. hepatic lipidosis
____10. The drug that causes vasoconstriction at the site of
administration is:
a. procaine
b. lidocaine
c. benzocaine
d. tetracaine
e. cocaine
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2____11. The cathartic whose action is limited to the colon is:
a. castor oil
b. magnesium sulfate
c. cascara sagrada
d. docusate
e. liquid petrolatum
____12. Which of the following is a buffer antacid?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. magnesium oxide
c. calcium carbonate
d. aluminum hydroxide
e. calcium hydroxide
____13. Prochlorperazine is least effective in prevention of
vomiting associated with:
a. vestibular stimulation
b. uremia
c. gastroenteritis
d. stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone
e. radiation sickness
____14. At high serum concentrations, all of the following
antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade except?
a. polymyxin B
b. streptomycin
c. dicloxacillin
d. neomycin
e. gentamicin
____15. Which penicillin is acid-stable and, therefore, may be
given orally?
a. benzylpenicillin Gb. carbenicillin
c. ticarcillin
d. amoxicillin
e. methicillin
____16. Bacitracin is used exclusively:
a. by topical application
b. by oral administration
c. for enteric infections
d. by intravenous administration
e. for Pseudomonas infections
____17. Urinary pH might be intentionally altered as part of a
therapeutic regimen to accomplish all of the following except
to:
a. prevent formation of some calculi
b. decrease irritant properties of urine
c. increase the effectiveness of certain chemotherapeutic drugs
d. modify the pH of extracellular fluid
e. alter the rate of urinary excretion of another drug
____18. An undesirable side effect of hydrochlorothiazide
administered over an extended period is:
a. hypertension
b. hypokalemia
c. hypernatremia
d. hypocalcemia
e. metabolic acidosis
____19. The action of spironolactone is to block:
a. release of aldosterone
b. tubular resorption of sodium
c. tubular resorption of chloride
d. the effects of aldosterone on the distal tubule
e. the effect of vasopressin on the collecting duct
____20. Pain originating from the ureter is best managed with
a. opiates
b. aspirin
c. phenazopyridine
d. lidocainee. phenylbutazone
____21. Morphine sulfate:
a. stimulates the respiratory center
b. dilates the bronchioles
c. depresses the spinal cord
d. stimulates intestinal smooth muscle
e. dilates the pupil in dogs
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3____22. Meperidine is of little value in management of severe
pain in dogs and cats because it:
a. is highly toxic in these species
b. is metabolized very rapidly in these species
c. does not cross the blood-brain barrier
d. is slowly absorbed from the injection site
e. is rapidly excreted by the kidneys
____23. How many grams of potassium permanganate are
required to prepare 1 gallon of a 1:3000 solution?
a. 0.3
b. 1.3
c. 3.0
d. 13. 0
e. 30
____24. Five grains are equivalent to how many grams?
a. 0.75
b. 0.075
c. 300
d. 0.325
e. 7.50
____25. You wish to dilute strong tincture of iodine (7%) with
70% ethanol to prepare 4 oz of tincture of iodine USP (2%)
for use on small animals. How much ethanol and 7% iodine
must be used?
a. 3 fl oz of ethanol and 1 fl oz of 7% iodine
b. 50 ml of ethanol and 45 ml of 7% iodine
c. 160 ml of ethanol and 80 ml of 7% iodine
d. 86 ml of ethanol and 34 ml of 7% iodine
e. 45 ml of ethanol and 55 ml of 7% iodine
____26. The duration of action of thiopental is determined
primarily by:
a. biotransformation in extrahepatic tissues
b. hepatic biotransformation
c. renal excretion
d. biliary excretion
e. redistribution in the body
____27. As compared with oxybarbiturates, thiobarbiturates
are:
a. more lipid soluble
b. slower in onset of action
c. less potent
d. less toxic
e. less irritating to tissues
____28. The most rapid recovery of consciousness would be
expected after discontinuing administration of:
a. methoxyflurane
b. halothane
c. diethyl ether
d. nitrous oxide
e. enflurane
____29. Abnormal elimination behavior in a dog, caused by
separation anxiety, may be effectively treated with:
a. estradiol
b. amphetamine
c. Phenobarbital
d. primidone
e. amitriptyline
____30. In cats, prolonged therapy with progestins to curtail
urine spraying may cause any of the following side effects
except:
a. increased libido
b. mammary gland hyperplasia
c. hyperglycemia
d. endometritis in queens
e. suppressed spermatogenesis in toms
____31. Tubocurarine and gallamine:
a. produce a depolarizing type of blockade of the myoneural
junction
b. are rapidly absorbed following oral administration
c. action may be reversed by administering an
anticholinesterase
d. have long duration of action
e. are ganglionic-blocking drugs
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4____32. A skeletal muscle relaxant whose site of action is in
the central nervous system is:
a. mathocarbamol
b. methoxyflurane
c. decamethonium
d. succinylcholine
e. gallamine
____33. Vitamin K is:
a. synthesized in the small intestine
b. found in significant quantity in cereal
grain
c. absorbed from the gut in the absence of bile
d. essential from thrombin formation in blood vessels
e. found in alfalfa as phytonadione
____34. Chronic administration of which drug may lead to
clinical signs of thiamin deficiency?
a. trimethoprim
b. amprolium
c. chlortetracycline
d. levamisole
e. metronidazole
____35. Which fat-soluble vitamin acts as an antioxidant in
tissues?
a. A
b. B12
c. D
d. E
e. Q
____36. The best drug for removal ofFasciola hepatica fromsheep is:
a. fenbendazole
b. carbon tetrachloride
c. albendazole
d. phenothiazine
e. carbon disulfide
____37. The breed of dog that exhibits an idiosyncratic
reaction to ivermectin is the:
a. Great Dane
b. Golden Retriever
c. Dalmatian
d. Cocker Spaniel
e. Collie
____38. A generally safe and effective drug for treatment of
giardiasis in dogs is:
a. metronidazole
b. quinine
c. thiabendazole
d. pyrimethamine
e. nitrofurantoin
____39. The drug indicated for treatment of a hypotensive
reaction to acepromazine is:
a. doxapram
b. methylphenidate
c. epinephrine
d. phenylephrine
e. hydralazine
____40. Phenothiazine tranquilizers act by:
a. blocking central cholinergic receptors
b. blocking dopamine receptors
c. blocking resorption of norepinephrine
d. inhibiting monoamine oxidase
e. stimulating central serotonin receptors
____41. Tranquilizers produce:
a. anesthesia when given in large dosesb. decreased seizure activity
c. an emetic response
d. suppression of conditioned avoidance behavior
e. hypertension when given in large doses
____42. The apparent volume of distribution of a drug:
a. generally coincides with an anatomic space
b. is determined by the drugs rate of elimination
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5c. is useful for calculation of dosage intervals
d. determines the time required to attain a steady-state
concentration
e. is employed to compute the plasma concentration resulting
from a given dose of the drug
____43. The plasma disappearance curve for erythromycin in
cattle after an intravenous bolus injection appears to have 2
exponential phases, one with a half-life of 15.2 minutes and
one with a half-life of 3.2 hours. The most likely explanation
for this is that:
a. erythromycin induces its own metabolism, so that the rate
ofelimination increases with time
b. the rapid phase is due to distribution to the tissues, and only
the late phase is due to elimination from the body
c. the rapid phase is due to renal clearance, and the late phase
is due to hepatic metabolism
d. there may be uneven absorption from the blood
e. laboratory assay procedures were not sufficiently accurate
____44. Which drug is not useful in management of epilepsy?
a. phenobarbital
b. phenytoin
c. carbamazepine
d. thiopental
e. valproic acid
____45.Chronic administration of barbiturates to an epileptic
dog may reduce the response to other anticonvulsant drugs
because of:
a. tolerance due to decreased receptor sensitivity
b. increased rate of excretion
c. accelerated rate of biotransformationd. increased volume of distribution
e. impaired intestinal absorption
____46.A side effect that appears to be unique to phenytoin is:
a. vestibular disturbances
b. gingival hyperplasia
c. sedation
d. heaptic toxicity
e. tinnitus
____47. The best solution for disinfecting a stall contaminated
by viruses, bacterial spores and helminth ova is:
a. saponated cresol
b. mercuric chloride
c. povidone-iodine
d. hot sodium hydroxide
e. chloramine-T
____48. The most effective bactericidal agent available within
a veterinary hospital is:
a. ultraviolet light
b. steam
c. ethanol
d. ethylene oxide
e. soap
____49. What is the effect of propantheline on the gut?
a. spasmogenic
b. antimuscarinic and ganglioplegic
c. stimulates motility
d. increases secretion by intestinal glands
e. evacuates the colon
____50. A dog is presented to you with diarrhea and vomiting
You determine that the patient has bacterial enteritis, which
you treat with prochlorperazine, isopropamide and neomycin.
The dog consumes adequate water ad libitum and is well
hydrated. After 3 days, the bladder is distended and the dog
does not urinate. What is the most likely cause of the
problem?
a. The dog has pollakiuria.b. The dog may be sensitive to the action of isopropamide.
c. The prochlorperazine is depressing the central nervous
system, abolishing the micturition reflex.
d. The neomycin may block bladder contraction at the
myoneural junction.
e. The patient has become hypokalemic.
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6____51. The action of heparin is promptly terminated by:
a. sodium fluoride
b. methylene blue
c. perphenazine
d. protamine
e. sodium citrate
____52. Iron is not:
a. conserved by the body
b. regulated in its absorption
c. necessary to prevent anemia
d. found primarily in hemoglobin and myoglobin
e. absorbed well in the ferric state
____53. An anticoagulant that is suitable for systemic
administration is:
a. calcium EDTA
b. dicumarol
c. sodium fluoride
d. thromboplastin
e. sodium oxalate
____54. United States Food and Drug Administration
regulations require that benzathine penicillin G must not be
used in beef steers for at least how many days before
slaughter?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
e. 30
____55. Lactated Ringers solution should not be mixed with:a. calcium chloride
b. potassium chloride
c. sodium chloride
d. sodium bicarbonate
e. potassium acetate
____56. The compendium of drug standards for potency,
purity and quality that is officially recognized in the Food,
Drug and Cosmetics Act is called the:
a. US Dispensatory
b. US Pharmacopeia/ National Formulary
c. Physicians Desk Reference
d. National Formulary
e. Drug Facts and Comparisons
____57. Norepinephrine and phenylephrine decrease the heart
rate by:
a. directly depressing the cardioaccelerator center in the
medulla
b. decreasing the peripheral blood flow
c. activating a baroreceptor reflex
d. decreasing bronchial muscle tone
e. exerting a direct negative inotropic effect
____58. Which of the following is a contraindication to
quinidine therapy?
a. atrial fibrillation
b. hypokalemia
c. nephritis
d. complete heart block
e. concurrent use of digoxin
____59. The best drug for suppressing a ventricular
arrhythmia is:
a. lidocaine
b. calcium gluconate
c. quinidine
d. digoxin
e. aminophylline
____60. In response to injury, phospholipase A2 is activated
in the cellular membrane, where it hydrolyzes phospholipids
to cause release of:
a. prostaglandins
b. cyclooxygenase
c. arachidonic acid
d. leukotriene A4
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7e. prostanoic acid
____61. Which eicosanoid induces aggregation of platelets in
the circulation?
a. prostacyclin
b. prostaglandin E2
c. leukotriene C4
d. thromboxane A2
e. prostaglandin H2
____62. Antihistaminic drugs are frequently used in patients
with pulmonary disease. However, there is little evidence of
their efficacy in this situation and their use may be deleterious
because:
a. they promote drying of the respiratory tract epithelium
b. histamine plays a useful role in compensating for
pulmonary disease
c. they depress the respiratory centers
d. they produce sedation
e. they stimulate the cough reflex
____63. A calf develops signs of an anaphylactoid reaction
after administration of procaine penicillin. This animal is most
appropriately treated immediately with:
a. an antihistaminic
b. a corticosteroid
c. penicillinase
d. intravenous fluids
e. epinephrine
____64. What is the drug of choice for topical treatment of an
infected thermal burn?
a. neomycin ointmentb. petrolatum
c. povidone-iodine solution
d. tannic acid spray
e. silver sulfadiazine cream
____65. Burrows solution is employed in wet dressings
because of its:
a. emollient effect
b. depilatory action
c. demulcent effect
d. astringent action
e. effect on pigmentation
____66. Which combination of antibacterials is antagonistic in
dermatologic use?
a. soap and benzalkonium chloride
b. neomycin and polymyxin
c. alcohol and iodine
d. bacitracin and neomycin
e. soap and alcohol
____67. Drugs used to treat newborn animals must be
carefully selected because:
a. neonates are unable to metabolize drugs
b. neonates have poorly developed drug receptors
c. correct dosage ranges have not been determined
d. neonates have poorly developed excretory organs
e. neonates absorb drugs poorly from the intestine
____68. Sulfamethazine is an acidic drug with a pKa of 7.4.
Concerning disposition of this drug in the body, which
statement is most accurate?
a. It is more readily eliminated from the body when the urine
is acidic.
b. It diffuses into the stomach (pH 2.0) and is trapped there
due to ionization.
c. It is more readily eliminated from the body when the urine
is alkaline.
d. It is almost entirely ionized in the blood.
e. It is almost entirely nonionized in the blood.
____69. Which of the following is not produced by
glucocorticoid administration?
a. increased gluconeogenesis
b. depressed protein catabolism
c. eosinopenia
d. monocytopenia
e. neutrophilia
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8____70. The approximate daily rate of secretion of
corticosteroids by the adrenal cortices in a healthy dog is:
a. 50 pg/kg
b. 200 ng/kg
c. 10 ng/kg
d. 1 mg/kg
e. 5 mg/kg
____71. Which drug does not produce local anesthesia when
applied topically?
a. lidocaine
b. benzocaine
c. dibucaine
d. procaine
e. phenol
____72. Gastric acid secretion is nearly abolished by:
a. atropine
b. omeprazole
c. metoclopramide
d. neostigmine
e. pentagastrin
____73. Which cathartic may be given safely to a lactating
sow nursing a litter of piglets?
a. cascara
b. aloe
c. castor oil
d. liquid petrolatum
e. croton oil
____74. Excessive gastric acid secretion, as seen with
mastocytoma, can be controlled by administration of:a. atropine
b. betazole
c. cimetidine
d. diphenhydramine
e. phenoxybenzamine
____75. Penicillins:
a. readily diffuse into cerebrospinal fluid
b. are extensively metabolized by the liver
c. have long elimination half-lives
d. are useful for treating intestinal infections
e. are rapidly excreted in urine
____76. Sulfonamides act against bacteria by:
a. inhibiting cell wall synthesis
b. interfering with bacterial metabolism
c. inhibiting protein synthesis
d. interfering with membrane function
e. impairing protein synthesis
____77. The renal toxicity associated with chronic
sulfonamide therapy is:
a. related to water solubility at a particular urinary pH
b. diminished by using a single sulfonamide
c. independent of urinary volume
d. related to neural function
e. least common with sulfathiazole
____78. Clinical signs associated with water intoxication are
related to:
a. edema of the brain
b. ascites
c. hydrothorax
d. nephrosis
e. dehydration of the mucosae
____79. Thiazides induce diuresis by:
a. inhibiting secretions from the posterior pituitary gland
b. dilating the efferent arterioles in kidneys
c. increasing systemic blood pressure
d. inhibiting sodium resorptione. increasing extracellular fluid volume
____80. The primary difference among the diuretics
chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide and bendroflumethiazide
is in their:
a. mechanism of action
b. potency
c. ceiling effect
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9d. safety
e. efficacy
____81. Aspirin:
a. has no antiinflammatory effects
b. produces hypothermia with overdoses
c. is eliminated more rapidly by dogs than pigs
d. is effective in reducing visceral pain
e. inhibits cyclooxygenase
____82. Which drug antagonizes the effects of opiates?
a. pentobarbital
b. pentylenetetrazol
c. naloxone
d. doxapram
e. haloperidol
____83. In a dog with pain from rheumatoid arthritis, the most
appropriate analgesic for occasional home use is:
a. aspirin
b. morphine
c. allopurinol
d. chlorpheniramine
e. colchicine
____84. You want to treat a 20-kg dog with oral tetracycline
at 25 mg/kg daily. The drug is available in 125-mg and 250-
mg capsules. How many capsules should you prescribe for a
5-day course of treatment?
a. 10 125-mg capsules
b. 10 250-mg capsules
c. 20 250-mg capsules
d. 30 125-mg capsulese. 45 125-mg capsules
____85. Though halothane is a widely used inhalant
anesthetic, a disadvantage is that it:
a. can depress the medulla
b. has powerful hypotensive effects
c. is a respiratory depressant
d. can cause renal necrosis
e. is expensive to use
____86. Induction of anesthesia with methoxyflurane is
relatively slow because it:
a. has a high vapor pressure
b. crosses alveolar membranes with difficulty
c. is soluble in blood
d. is highly irritating to the respiratory tract
e. decreases perfusion of the lungs
____87. The principal danger associated wit use of nitrous
oxide during inhalation anesthesia is:
a. explosion
b. cardiac arrhythmia
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. hypoxia
e. hemolysis
____88. A drug that can stimulate the appetite in an anorexic
patient is:
a. chlorpromazine
b. amphetamine
c. haloperidol
d. diazepam
e. reserpine
____89. Overactivity and intolerance to restraint
(hyperkinesis) in a dog is appropriately treated with:
a. acepromazine
b. methylphenidate
c. phenytoin
d. mephenesin
e. valproic acid
____90. In treatment of malignant hyperthermia, dantrolene
acts by:
a. uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation in the liver
b. decreasing release of calcium from the sarcoplastic
reticulum
c. increasing radiant heat loss through cutaneous vasodilation
d. depressing the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center
e. suppressing release of endogenous pyrogen
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10
____91. Botulinus toxin acts by:
a. stimulating release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the
spinal cord
b. blocking sodium channels in motor nerves
c. blocking depolarization of muscle end plates
d. blocking release of acetylcholine from vesicles in motor
nerve endings
e. causing persistent depolarization of skeletal muscle
____92. Which drug facilitates removal of lipid from a fatty
liver?
a. nandrolone decanoate
b. dexamethasone
c. methionine
d. pitressin
e. chloroform
____93. 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of
vitamin D, is synthesized in the:
a. liver
b. skin
c. kidney
d. gut
e. bone
____94. Avidin, a glycoprotein contained in egg white, can
cause a deficiency of what vitamin when raw eggs are fed?
a. pyridoxine
b. niacin
c. riboflavin
d. biotin
e. pantothenic acid
____95. Coccidiosis is the most serious parasitic disease seen
in rabbitries. An outbreak can be prevented or controlled by
treating the drinking water or feed with:
a. quinacrine
b. monensin
c. amprolium
d. sulfaquinoxaline
e. hexachlorophene
____96. In cattle, a drug that is effective against the
intermediate stage of the human tapeworm Taenia saginata is:
a. niclosamide
b. bunamidine
c. tetramisole
d. praziquantel
e. arecoline
____97. Heartworm disease can be prevented in dogs living in
enzootic areas by administering, at monthly intervals, the
larvicidal drug:
a. dithiazanine
b. ivermectin
c. thiacetarsamide
d. diethylcarbamazine
e. levamisole
____98. Paralysis of the retractor penis muscle caused by
phenothiazine tranquilizers has been observed in:
a. bulls
b. boars
c. stallions
d. rams
e. bucks
____99. A tranquilizer that is approved in the United States
for use in swine to control aggression and fighting is:
a. acepromazine
b. xylazine
c. chlorpromazine
d. droperidole. azaperone
____100. Which of the following is not an effect of
phenothiazine tranquilizers?
a. decreased secretion of prolactin
b. hypotension with use of large doses
c. prevention of vomiting associated with uremia
d. reduced packed cell volume in horses
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11e. sedation
____101. A drug that has affinity for and interacts with a cell
receptor to elicit a response is called:
a. an agonist
b. a competitive antagonist
c. an incomplete antagonist
d. a potentiating agent
e. an enzyme inducer
____102. A graded dose-response curve is an indication of:
a. an all-or-none phenomenon
b. a lethal dose of a drug
c. the extent of receptor occupancy
d. relative safety
e. individual variation
____103. Atropine dilates the pupil of the eye by antagonizing
the effects of acetylcholine on the pupillary constrictor
muscle. This effect is known as:
a. cyclodialysis
b. phthisis
c. miosis
d. mydriasis
e. cyclodamia
____104. The drug of choice for immediate treatment of status
epilepticus is:
a. diazepam
b. acepromazine
c. dantrolene
d. valproic acid
e. dexamethasone
____105. A cationic detergent is one in which the
hydrophobic portion is positively charged. An example is:
a. sodium orthophenylphenate
b. tincture of green soap
c. benzalkonium chloride
d. sodium hypochlorite
e. sapinated cresol
____106. A disinfectant that is suitable and economical for
use on the floor of dairy barns is:
a. alkyl dimethyl benzyl ammonium (Roccal- D)
b. sodium hypochlorite
c. creolin
d. phenol
e. chlorinated lime
____107. A bitch is presented to you because of increased
frequency of urination. A Grams stain of the urinary sediment
reveals many Gram-negative rods. You prescribe sulfisoxazole
therapy. Which drug is most appropriate to relieve the
pollakiuria, as this is a nuisance to the owner?
a. ephedrine
b. bethanechol
c. propantheline
d. ammonium chloride
e. furosemide
____108. A clinical sign of deadly nightshade or Jimson weed
poisoning in horses is:
a. bradycardia
b. anhydrosis
c. miosis
d. profuse diarrhea
e. xerostomia
____109. Atropine exerts its main therapeutic effect at
receptors in the:
a. central nervous system
b. neuromuscular junction
c. autonomic gangliad. parasympathetic effector organs
e. postganglionic parasympathetic nerves
____110. All of the following participate in production of
erythrocytes and hemoglobin synthesis and might be given for
treatment of anemia except:
a. manganese
b. iron
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12c. copper
d. cobalt
e. folic acid
____111. A drug that significantly stimulates neutrophilic
granulocytosis is:
a. progesterone
b. phenylbutazone
c. hydrocortisone
d. estradiol
e. erythropoietin
____112. Heparin:
a. is rapidly inactivated in the lungs
b. has a long biological half-life
c. binds calcium ions
d. acts to antagonize thrombin
e. can be used to decrease clotting time
____113. To dispense or prescribe controlled substances in the
United States, a veterinarian must be licensed to practice and
be registered with the Drug Enforcement Administration,
which is a division of the:
a. US Department of Justice
b. US Food and Drug Administration
c. US Department of the Treasury
d. Customs Department
e. US Department of Agriculture
____114. Bradycardia of vagal origin may be diagnosed by
administering:
a. isoproterenol
b. phentolaminec. atropine
d. phenylephrine
e. atenolol
____115. The drug that decreases contractility of the
ventricular myocardium is:
a. calcium chloride
b. epinephrine
c. digoxin
d. propranolol
e. isoproterenol
____116. The cause of death from intoxication by digitalis
glycosides is:
a. respiratory failure
b. ventricular fibrillation
c. hypokalemia
d. renal failure
e. hepatic failure
____117. Eicosanoids are involved in all of the following
physiologic functions except:
a. regulation of heat production
b. regression of the corpus luteum
c. blood clotting
d. renal failure
e. hepatic failure
____118. As a veterinarian, you must exercise extreme
caution when handling prostaglandin F2alpha and its synthetic
analogs because absorption through the skin can cause:
a. myocardial infarction
b. abortion in pregnant women and/or asthmatic attacks
c. psychotic episodes
d. lupus erythematosus
e. vomiting and diarrhea
____119. Which of the following is not an effect of histamine?
a. increased secretion of gastric acid
b. pruritus from stimulation of sensory nerve endings
c. increased salivationd. slowing of the heart rate
e. dilation of arterioles
____120. Captopril and enalapril are used to relieve
vasoconstriction and reduce fluid retention associated with
congestive heart failure. These desirable effects are the result
of:
a. blockade of alpha-adrenergic receptors
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13b. inhibition of angiotensin II production
c. decreased renal excretion of sodium
d. stimulation of renin release
e. blockade of dopamine receptors
____121. Whitfields ointment is used as a:
a. protective
b. sunscreen
c. keratolytic
d. depilatory
e. disinfectant
____122. Which of the following is the most appropriate
vehicle for a drug to be applied to an acutely inflamed area of
skin?
a. petrolatum
b. collodion
c. alcohol
d. water
e. lanolin
____123. The drug that specifically stimulates cold receptors
in the skin to evoke a sensation of coolness is:
a. camphor
b. menthol
c. benzoin
d. phenol
e. aloe
____124. Probenecid is an acidic drug with a pKa of 3.4.
Using the equation below, what is the approximate ratio of the
number of molecules ionized to the number not ionized at the
pH of blood?Ci
pH = pKa + log
Cn
a. 1:1
b. 100:1
c. 1000:1
d. 10,000:1
e. 1:1000
____125. The phenomenon caused by chronic administration
of certain drugs and characterized by hepatomegaly, increased
protein content of the liver, and increased microsomal enzyme
activity is known as:
a. induction
b. inhibition
c. enhancement
d. incompatibility
e. drug interaction
____126. The duration of action of a given steroid is shortest
following the intramuscular injection of which of the
following esters?
a. succinate
b. acetate
c. acetonide
d. diacetate
e. pivalate
____127. The rationale for administration of an intermediate-
acting corticosteroid on alternate days during a chronic course
of therapy is that this regimen:
a. enhances efficacy
b. corresponds with the diurnal cycle
c. reduces the degree of atrophy of the adrenal cortex
d. is more convenient for the owner
e. reduces retention of potassium
____128. Neostigmine is indicated for treatment of:
a. peritonitis
b. ileus
c. intussusceptiond. diarrhea
e. obstruction of the colon
____129. A drug that stimulates gastric emptying, relaxation
of the pyloric sphincter, and increased tone of the esophageal
sphincter is:
a. metoclopramide
b. atropine
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14c. morphine
d. epinephrine
e. haloperidol
____130. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are characterized by
their:
a. bacteriostatic effect
b. inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
c. potential neurotoxicity
d. good absorption from the gut
e. hepatic toxicity
____131. Erythromycin:
a. is concentrated in bile
b. has a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity
c. may cause blood dyscrasias
d. should not be given with streptomycin
e. is not absorbed from the gut
____132. Griseofulvin is:
a. effective in treatment of yeast infections
b. limited in its distribution to the skin
c. more poorly absorbed when given with a fatty meal
d. incorporated into the keratin of skin and hair
e. immediately effective in treatment of ringworm
____133. Furosemide induces diuresis by:
a. inhibiting carbonic anhydrase
b. antagonizing aldosterone
c. inhibiting resorption of chloride in the loop of Henle
d. decreasing permeability of the renal collecting ducts
e. inhibiting sodium resorption in the proximal tubule
____134. The drug that primarily acts to increase osmotic
pressure of blood plasma is:
a. mannitol
b. mersalyl
c. chlorothiazide
d. acetazolamide
e. dextrose
____135. The effects of methotrexate may be antagonized
by:
a. folic acid
b. folinic acid
c. aminopterin
d. cyanocobalamin
e. panthothenic acid
____136. The system most sensitive to the toxic effects of
antineoplastic drugs is the:
a. respiratory system
b. endocrine system
c. urinary system
d. gastrointestinal system
e. cardiovascular system
____137. Bone marrow suppression produced by methotrexate
can be ameliorated by administration of:
a. stanozolol
b. daunorubicin
c. leucovorin
d. prednisolone
e. cobaltous chloride
____138. The drug that effectively controls severe visceral
pain is:
a. aspirin
b. phenylbutazone
c. indomethacin
d. methadone
e. acetanilide
____139. The species most sensitive to xylazine is:
a. cattle
b. swine
c. horses
d. dogs
e. cats
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15____140. In aspirin poisoning, the rate of excretion of
salicylate is increased by treatment with:
a. ammonium chloride
b. ascorbic acid
c. caffeine
d. sodium bicarbonate
e. furosemide
____141. A horse that has been treated with chloral hydrate
may subsequently show glucosuria because:
a. chloral hydrate stimulates release of epinephrine from the
adrenal gland
b. chloral hydrate decreases glucose utilization by the tissues
c. the metabolite urochloralic acid is a reducing substance
d. chloral hydrate decreases the renal threshold for glucose
e. the renal tubules are damaged by chloral hydrate
____142. The sedative that does not undergo
biotransformation in the body is:
a. barbital
b. chloral hydrate
c. pentobarbital
d. phenobarbital
e. thiopental
____143. A nutritional disease of young swine raised in the
midwestern United States, in which muscular dystrophy and
necrotic lesions of the liver are prominent, is caused by a
deficiency of:
a. iron
b. selenium
c. vitamin A
d. zince. vitamin B6
____144. Blacktongue, an uncommon but classic nutritional
disease of dogs, is cured by treatment with:
a. pyridoxine
b. thiamin
c. molybdenum
d. choline
e. niacin
____145. Which drugs lower the seizure threshold and may
induce extrapyramidal motor effects?
a. phenothiazines
b. benzodiazepines
c. monoamine oxidase inhibitors
d. butyrophenones
e. tricyclics
____146. All of the following have been observed as adverse
reactions to acepromazine except:
a. vicious behavior
b. anaphylaxis
c. hypotension
d. sudden collapse
e. urinary retention
____147. An injectable drug that you could employ for
treating Trichuris vulpis infection in a dog is:
a. butamisole
b. fenbendazole
c. disophenol
d. dichlorvos
e. thenium
____148. Concerning the benzimidazole anthelmintics, which
statement is least accurate?
a. These drugs act to interfere with energy production in
susceptible parasites.
b. All members of the group are relatively insoluble in water.
c. This group has a high potential for causing toxic reactions.
d. Most of the drugs in this group present little hazard ofviolative residues in food.
e. This group of drugs has a broad spectrum of activity against
many of the helminths found in domestic animals.
____149. If a drug has a biological half-life of 17 hours in
cattle, approximately how long should the drug be withheld
before slaughter, so that the animals meat does not contain
drug residue?
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16a. 17 hours
b. 8.5 hours
c. 34 hours
d. 7 days
e. 85 hours
____150. If the half-life of tetracycline in dogs is 6 hours and
a therapeutic dose is given every 8 hours, how many hours
will it take to attain a plateau in the mean plasma
concentration of the drug?
a. 16 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 30 hours
d. 48 hours
e. 64 hours
____151. A vasoconstrictive autonomic drug that is useful in
management of epistaxis is:
a. phenylephrine
b. propranolol
c. isoproterenol
d. phenoxybenzamine
e. vasopressin
____152. Isoproterenol is a nonselective beta receptor agonist.
All of the following effects would occur after its intravenous
administration to a cow except:
a. bronchiolar dilation
b. increased cardiac output
c. decreased peripheral resistance
d. increased mean blood pressure
e. decreased intestinal motility
____153. A cholinergic alkaloid commonly used topically to
produce miosis is:
a. arecoline
b. muscarine
c. pilocarpine
d. methacholine
e. neostigmine
____154. A drug used to convert atrial fibrillation to a
normal sinus rhythm in horses is:
a. aminophylline
b. epinephrine
c. nitroglycerin
d. quinidine
e. digitalis
____155. A condition that increases the cardiotoxicity of
digoxin is:
a. hypercalcemia
b. hyperkalemia
c. hyperglycemia
d. congestive heart failure
e. pulmonary edema
____156. Morphine is useful in management of acute
pulmonary edema because it:
a. produces diuresis
b. reduces pulmonary capillary pressure
c. dilates bronchioles
d. reduces pain
e. stimulates respiration
____157. In which species does salicylate exhibit the shortest
elimination half-life?
a. cattle
b. rabbits
c. dogs
d. cats
e. people
____158. An effective analgesic- antipyretic drug that hasweak anti-inflammatory activity is:
a. aspirin
b. phenylbutazone
c. dipyrone
d. acetophenetidin
e. caffeine
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17____159. Chloramphenicol and quinidine may interact with
other drugs by:
a. protein binding displacement
b. inhibiting microsomal enzymes
c. enhancing renal excretion of other drugs
d. chemically reacting with other drugs
e. enhancing the action of hepatic enzymes
____160. Drugs found in high concentrations in fat are also
likely to be found in high concentrations in:
a. bone
b. muscle
c. kidney
d. brain
e. lymph nodes
____161. The best route for administration of a drug that
forms a very alkaline solution is:
a. intravenous
b. subcutaneous
c. intramuscular
d. intraperitoneal
e. intrathecal
____162. Concerning cortisol, which statement is least
accurate?
a. It reduces inflammation.
b. It indirectly inhibits phospholipase A2.
c. It promotes gluconeogenesis.
d. It increases muscular strength.
e. It promotes sodium retention and
potassium loss.
____163. Fluorination of a steroid nucleus has the effect of:
a. inactivating the molecule
b. increasing potency
c. decreasing glucocorticoid activity
d. decreasing mineralocorticoid activity
e. increasing aqueous solubility
____164. The sulfonamide preferred for ophthalmic use
because of neutrality of its sodium salt is:
a. sulfisoxazole
b. sulfamerazine
c. sulfapyridine
d. sulfamethoxazole
e. sulfacetamide
____165. An antimicrobial drug whose use in food-producing
animals is specifically forbidden by United States Food and
Drug Administration regulations is:
a. oxytetracycline
b. ampicillin
c. chloramphenicol
d. sulfamethazine
e. tylosin
____166. An antibacterial drug that is poorly absorbed
following oral administration with milk is:
a. oxytetracycline
b. erythromycin
c. sulfisoxazole
d. amoxicillin
e. chloramphenicol
____167. A selective antineoplastic drug is one whose action
is relatively specific against a certain type of tumor. An
example of a selective antineoplastic drug is:
a. streptozocin
b. adriamycin
c. cyclophosphamide
d. methotrexate
e. prednisolone
____168. Cyclophosphamide is likely to be least effective in a
patient with severe:
a. renal insufficiency
b. immunodeficiency
c. dermatitis
d. hypoproteinemia
e. hepatic insufficiency
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18____169. Rapid induction of anesthesia by administration of
an inhalant anesthetic is primarily due to the low:
a. potency of the gas
b. partial pressure of the gas in the central nervous system
c. solubility of the gas in blood
d. rate of metabolism of the gas
e. respiratory rate
____170. Halothane anesthesia is characterized by:
a. profound analgesia
b. relatively poor muscle relaxation
c. sensitization of chlolinergic receptors
d. increased peripheral vascular resistance
e. hypotension in deeper planes of anesthesia
____171. The drug that is not suitable for use as a sole
anesthetic agent for abdominal laparotomy in a dog is:
a. halothane
b. ketamine
c. pentobarbital
d. enflurane
e. ethyl ether
____172. The bioavailability of chloramphenicol in a steer is
very low after oral administration because the drug:
a. does not cross the ruminal epithelium
b. is destroyed within the rumen
c. has an enterohepatic cycle
d. is metabolized by the liver
e. has low lipid solubility
____173. Phenylpropanolamine is often effective in control of
urinary incontinence because it:a. stimulates release of vasopressin by the pituitary gland
b. inhibits contraction of the detrusor muscle by blocking
cholinergic receptors
c. increases tone of the internal urethral sphincter by
stimulating alpha receptors
d. decreases renal blood flow
e. blocks serotonin receptors in the hypothalamus
____174. Bethanechol administered subcutaneously:
a. increases the capacity of the urinary bladder
b. decreases secretory activity of the gastrointestinal tract
c. constricts the ileocecal sphincter
d. induces bradycardia
e. causes mydriasis
____175. Ephedrine is:
a. effective when given per os
b. a long-acting catecholamine
c. metabolized largely by catechol-O-methyltransferase
d. without effect on denervated tissue
e. an ergot alkaloid
____176. What property of the cardiac glycosides is employed
in the process of digitalization?
a. rapid excretion
b. rapid biotransformation
c. potency
d. accumulation in the body
e. low water solubility
____177. A drug used to treat atrial fibrillation is:
a. aminophylline
b. lidocaine
c. nitroglycerin
d. epinephrine
e. procainamide
____178. Peripheral vasodilators are employed in treatment of
congestive heart failure. Their beneficial effect is due to
decreasing the work load of the heart. The drug thataccomplishes this by dilating arterioles in peripheral vascular
beds is:
a. milrinone
b. hydralazine
c. nitroprusside
d. verapamil
e. ouabain
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19____179. Concerning phenylbutazone, which statement is
least accurate?
a. It has a long half-life in cattle and people.
b. It is highly bound to serum albumin.
c. It blocks the painful response to injected prostaglandin E2.
d. It is converted by the liver to an active metabolite.
e. It may cause blood dyscrasia in dogs and cats.
____180. The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is
most useful for prevention of intravascular thrombosis when
administered chronically in small doses is:
a. flunixin meglumine
b. aspirin
c. phenylbutazone
d. meclofenamic acid
e. sodium salicylate
____181. Nonpolar drugs are slowly excreted by the kidneys
because they:
a. do not pass through the glomerulus
b. are protein bound
c. are insoluble in water
d. are resorbed by the tubular epithelium
e. do not have a favorable pKa
____182. Most drugs are absorbed into the circulation by:
a. facilitated diffusion
b. pinocytosis
c. simple diffusion
d. active transport
e. osmosis
____183. Biotransformation usually alters a drug so as to:a. make it more toxic
b. make it less toxic
c. make it less water soluble
d. make it more polar
e. improve its distribution
____184. Clinical doses of prednisolone in dogs:
a. inhibit fibroblastic activity
b. increase glucose utilization by tissues
c. increase plasma calcium levels
d. produce eosinophilia
e. decrease resorption of sodium by the kidneys
____185. A serious adverse effect of estrogens in dogs is:
a. gynecomastia
b. toxic hepatitis
c. pancytopenia
d. anorexia
e. hypoprothrombinemia
____186. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to
use of corticosteroids?
a. ketosis
b. ulcerative keratitis
c. allergic dermatitis
d. arthritis
e. lupus erythematosus
____187. The drug that is extensively metabolized in the liver
is:
a. ampicillin
b. chloramphenicol
c. streptomycin
d. tetracycline
e. gentamicin
____188. You have a patient with acute hepatitis and bacterial
pneumonia. Which drug is most likely to be safe and effective
for treatment of the infection?a. chloramphenicol
b. gentamicin
c. erythromycin
d. chlortetracycline
e. metronidazole
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20____189. Which route of administration is most appropriate
for sulfonamide therapy in domestic animals?
a. subcutaneous
b. intramuscular
c. intraperitoneal
d. intravenous
e. intraocular
____190. Dose-related cardiac damage is an important toxic
effect of the chemotherapeutic agent:
a. mithramycin
b. doxorubicin
c. 5-fluorouracil
d. chlorambucil
e. cytosine arabinoside
____191. Vincristine, a plant alkaloid used in oncologic
therapy, inhibits cell division by:
a. alkylating the strands of DNA
b. inhibiting synthesis of purines
c. antagonizing folic acid
d. arresting mitosis
e. preventing transcription
____192. Yohimbine promptly reverses the sedative action of:
a. phenobarbital
b. diazepam
c. acepromazine
d. xylazine
e. ketamine
____193. The drug that is useful to inhibit insulin secretion by
an islet-cell adenoma is:a. diazoxide
b. chlorpropamide
c. 5% dextrose solution
d. chlorothiazide
e. tolbutamide
____194. The preparation with the longest duration of
action is:
a. posterior pituitary injection USP
b. vasopressin injection USP
c. vasopressin tannate injection USP
d. arginine vasopressin
e. lysine vasopressin
____195. Oral hypoglycemic drugs generally are not useful in
management of diabetes mellitus in dogs because:
a. they are extremely toxic in dogs
b. there are insufficient numbers of functional beta cells in
diabetic dogs
c. they are very rapidly metabolized in dogs
d. they are poorly absorbed
e. they tend to cause intractable diarrhea
____196. Under normal conditions of use, the drug with 100%
probability of causing toxic side effects is:
a. oxytetracycline
b. amantadine
c. amphotericin B
d. nystatin
e. acyclovir
____197. A drug with both antibacterial and antifungal actions
when applied topically is:
a. undecylenic acid
b. tolnaftate
c. thiabendazole
d. cuprimyxin
e. miconazole
____198. The efficacy of ketoconazole for treatment of
blastomycosis may be compromised if the patient is also
receiving ranitidine because:
a. the ketoconazole will be poorly absorbed
b. ranitidine will increase the rate of biotransformation of
ketoconazole
c. the ketoconazole will not be converted to its active
metabolite
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21d. ranitidine stimulates proliferation of the pathogen
e. the patient will be immunocompromised
____199. A complication resulting from insulin therapy in
diabetic patients is:
a. hypokalemia
b. metabolic acidosis
c. dehydration
d. hyponatremia
e. acute renal shutdown
____200. Prednisone is used as a primary cytotoxic drug for
treatment of:
a. pancreatic carcinoma
b. adrenocortical carcinoma
c. melanoma
d. mastocytoma
e. lymphocytic leukemia
____201. The sympathomimetic effect of cocaine is associated
with:
a. blockade of sodium channels
b. inhibition of monoamine oxidase
c. enhanced release of the neuromediator
d. blockade of calcium channels
e. blockade of norepinephrine resorption
____202. The best drug for treatment of anaplasmosis in a
steer is:
a. ceftiofur
b. oxytetracycline
c. kanamycind. sulfamerazine
e. ampicillin
____203. The most commonly observed adverse effect of
fluoroquinolone antimicrobials in juvenile animals is:
a. agranulocytosis
b. colonic ulceration
c. damage to articular cartilage
d. lower-nephron nephrosis
e. anosmia
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22ANSWERS
1. b- Corticosteroids cause hepatomegaly and elevated serum
alkaline phosphatase activity.
2. d- Protamine zinc insulin is slowly absorbed from the
injection site.
3. c- Agonist-bound V2 receptor activates the enzyme to cause
accumulation of cyclic AMP in the cell, with resultant
increased permeability of the luminal membrane.
4. b- The stratum corneum is relatively impermeable to many
molecules.
5. c- Such drugs have a large renal clearance limited primarily
by renal blood flow.
6. c- Adrenal and gonadal steroid hormones enhance
transcription of specific genes to increase synthesis of
the enzymes. The other answer choices are secondary
actions.
7. e- The methyl group at the 16-position
abolishes the corticosteroid effect on
electrolyte excretion.
8. a- Procaine is hydrolyzed by serum and
hepatic esterases.
9. c- Local anesthetics may cause
convulsions. The other answer
choices are unrelated to dibucaine.
10. e- Cocaine is unique among local
anesthetics in that it blocks
resorption of norepinephrine at
sympathetic nerve endings.
11. c- Cascara is an anthraquinone
glycoside that is inactive until it is
hydrolyzed by bacterial enzymes
found in the colon. The other drugs
listed act either in the smallintestine or throughout the bowels.
12. d- Aluminum hydroxide is the only
drug listed that functions as a
buffer antacid. Al (OH)3 + 3 HCL
AlCl3 + 3 H20 in the stomach, and
Al(Cl)3 + 3 NaHCO3 + H2O
Al(OH)3 + 3 NaCl + 3 H2O + 3 CO2
in the duodenum.
13. a- Antihistaminics (eg,
diphenhydramine) are much more
effective for prevention of motion
sickness.
14. c- The penicillins do not have an effect
at the myoneural junction.
15. d- The other penicillins listed are
destroyed in an acidic environment.
16. a- Bacitracin is too toxic for systemic
use, and it has a Gram-positive
antibacterial spectrum.
17. d- Alteration of urinary pH has
negligible effect on the pH of
extracellular fluid.
18. b- Thiazide diuretics increase renal
excretion of potassium, leading to
hypokalemia unless potassium is
supplemented orally.
19. d- Spironolactone is a competitive
antagonist of the aldosterone
receptor.
20. a- Potent central-acting narcotic
analgesics are required to alleviate
the intense visceral pain of ureteral
colic.
21. d- Morphine arrests peristalsis by its
spasmotic action on smooth muscle
in the gut.
22. b- The duration of action ofmeperidine is only about 45
minutes in these species.
23. b- One gallon equals approximately
4000ml. A 1:3000 solution is
equivalent to 0.03%. 4000 x 0.0003
= 1.3 g of potassium permanganate.
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2324. d- 5 gr x 65 mg/gr = 325 mg or 0.325 g.
25. d- 4 oz x 30 ml/oz = 120 ml total,
comprised of 5 parts 70% ethanol
and 2 parts 7% tincture.
26. e- The thiopental is distributed
initially to highly perfused organs,
such as the brain. It then is
distributed from the brain to such
tissues as muscle, reducing the
concentration in the brain.
27. a- The sulfur atom is less polar than
the oxygen atom. The other answer
choices are incorrect.
28. d- Nitrous oxide has very low
solubility in blood.
29. e- Amitriptyline appears to diminish
apprehension and alter the related
behavioral response.
30. a- Progestins decrease libido. The
other answer choices are side effects
of this group of drugs.
31. c- Both of these drugs act as
competitive antagonists of
acetylcholine.
32. a- Methocarbamol acts to inhibit
motor pathways in the spinal cord.
33. e- Alfalfa meal is an important dietary
source of vitamin K.
34. b- Amprolium is a thiamin antagonist
used to control coccidiosis.
35. d- Vitamin E, or alpha tocopherol,
prevents oxidation of essential
cellular constituents.36. c- Albendazole is approved for
removal of liver flukes from sheep
and cattle.
37. e- Some Collies develop blindness,
coma and death in response to
ivermectin.
38. a- Metronidazole is the only drug
listed that affects Giardia canis.
39. d- Phenothiazines block alpha-
adrenergic receptors to cause
hypotension. This effect is reversed
by an alpha antagonist, such as
phenylephrine. The other answer
choices are inappropriate.
40. b- Phenothiazines have a high affinity
for D2 sites and block many of the
actions of dopamine.
41. d- This is the only correct choice.
42. e- Volume of distribution is a
proportionality constant that
relates plasma concentration to
dose.
43. b- Typically, most drugs disappear
from the plasma in an exponential
manner that can be described by a
2-compartment model.
44. d- Thiopental would cause excessive
sedation for a short period, making
the drug unsuitable for long-term
use in prevention of seizures.
45. c- Barbiturates cause induction of
hepatic microsomal enzymes. This
is an important mechanism of drug
interactions.
46. b- Phenytoin alters collagen
metabolism in some individuals,
causing hyperplasia of gingival
tissue.
47. d- Hot lye solution is the only
disinfectant listed that will destroy
all 3 contaminants.48. b- Boiling water or steam under
pressure is the best means of
destroying bacteria on inanimate
objects in a hospital.
49. b- Propantheline is a quaternary
ammonium antimuscarinic
compound. This confers
appreciable activity at ganglionic
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24and muscarinic sites.
50. b- Isopropamide can cause urinary
retention by inducing contraction of
the internal sphincter and
relaxation of the detrusor muscle of
the urinary bladder.
51. d- Heparin is a strongly
electronegative molecule that is
neutralized by protamine, which is
electropositive. This effect
inactivates heparin in vitro and in
vivo.
52. e- Ferrous salts are 3-4 times as
bioavailable as ferric salts.
53. b- Dicumarol is a vitamin K
antagonist within the liver. The
other compounds listed are
unsuitable for such use.
54. e- Benzathine penicillin is a very
insoluble repository form of
penicillin G.
55. d- Lactated Ringers solution contains
calcium chloride. Mixing Ringers
solution with sodium bicarbonate
forms the insoluble precipitate,
calcium carbonate.
56. b- The United States Pharmacopeia
has been the compendium since
1820. The National Formulary was
combined with the United States
Pharmacopeia in 1980.
57. c- Stimulation of the carotid sinus by
increased blood pressure slows theheart rate.
58. d- With complete heart block,
quinidine may extinguish
ventricular ectopic pacemakers to
cause cardiac arrest.
59. a- The other drugs listed would be
contraindicated or inappropriate.
60. c- Arachidonic acid is a component of
phospholipids and, when released,
serves as a precursor to formation
of several eicosanoids.
61. d- Thromboxane is synthesized in
platelets and is a powerful inducer
of platelet aggregation.
62. a- Most of the H-1 histamine receptor-
blocking drugs exert some
anticholinergic effects that decrease
glandular secretion.
63. e- The physiologic effects of
epinephrine are diametrically
opposed to those of histamine and
are immediate in onset.
64. e- This preparation was developed
specifically for burn patients.
65. d- This solution of aluminum
subacetate is used to treat acute,
oozing skin lesions.
66. a- This is a combination of an anionic
and a cationic detergent, which
inactivate each other. The other
choices listed are employed in
combination and are effective.
67. a- The microsomal enzyme system is
not developed at birth in domestic
animals.
68. c- A greater proportion would be
ionized in an alkaline fluid, and less
would undergo resorption from the
tubules.
69. b- Glucocorticoids increase proteincatabolism.
70. d- This is a useful value to consider
when determining the dosage of
various corticosteroids.
71. d- Procaine is poorly absorbed and is
less potent than the other drugs
listed.
72. b- Omeprazole blocks H+
-K+
ATPase
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25in the gastric mucosa.
73. d- Pharmacologically active
components of the other 4
compounds are excreted in milk
and may cause diarrhea in the pigs.
74. c- The action of histamine released
from mast cells on the H2 receptors
would be blocked by cimetidine.
75. e- Penicillins are actively secreted by
the proximal convoluted tubules of
the kidney. The other answer
choices are incorrect.
76. b- Sulfonamides compete with
paraaminobenzoic acid in synthesis
of folic acid.
77. a- Some sulfonamides cause lower-
nephron nephrosis by forming
crystals in the renal tubules.
78. a- Brain edema causes central nervous
system signs.
79. d- Thiazide diuretics inhibit active
resorption of sodium in the
proximal convoluted tubule. The
retained sodium increases the
volume of water in tubular fluid.
80. b- The doses of these drugs vary by 1
and 2 orders of magnitude, but the
other features remain the same.
81. e- The principal action of aspirin is to
decrease synthesis of
prostaglandins by inhibiting
cyclooxygenase.
82. c- Naloxone combines with opiatereceptors without acting as an
agonist.
83. a- A narcotic is not indicated, but the
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
drug, aspirin, would diminish the
inflammatory response and
alleviate pain.
84. c- 20 kg x 25 mg/kg = 500 mg/dose x 2
doses/day = 1000 mg/day, or 4 250-
mg capsules daily. 4 capsules/day x
5 days = 20 capsules.
85. b- Halothane depresses the
myocardium and blunts the
baroreceptor- mediated
tachycardia in response to
hypotension.
86. c- Equilibration of partial pressure
between the alveolus and blood is
slow because of the solubility of
methoxyflurane.
87. d- Nitrous oxide is an inert gas, but it
may replace oxygen in the inspired
gas mixture and cause hypoxia.
88. d- Diazepam stimulates appetite and
causes weight gain. This effect has
been used to treat anorexia in sick
dogs and cats.
89. b- Hyperkinesis is paradoxically
improved by treatment with a
central nervous system stimulant.
90. b- Dantrolene suppresses excessive
release of calcium ions from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum. This is
believed to be the mechanism
leading to malignant hyperthermia
in susceptible individuals.
91. d- The toxin binds irreversibly to
membrane sites and blocks all
cholinergic junctions.
92. a- The anabolic steroid, nandrolone,
facilitates synthesis of lipoproteins,which leave the liver.
93. c- Vitamin D3 is converted to 25-
hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver
and is hydroxylated at the one-
position by renal mitochondria.
94. d- Avidin binds strongly to biotin and
prevents its absorption from the
intestine.
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2695. d- Sulfaquinoxaline is the only drug
approved for its use.
96. d- Praziquantel completely eliminates
the intermediate stages of this
human tapeworm from cattle.
97. b- Ivermectin is approved in the US
for prevention of heartworm
infections in dogs.
98. c- Phenothiazines relax the retractor
muscle, but in some individuals this
effect is prolonged, leading to
paraphimosis.
99. e- Azaperone is relatively nontoxic
butyrophenone tranquilizer that
may be used in swine.
100. a- Phenothiazines stimulate secretion
of prolactin.
101. a
102. c- This hyperbolic curve relates the
magnitude of a drug effect to the
drug dose. When the curve
flattens, it indicates that all
available receptors are occupied.
103. d
104. a- Of the drugs listed, diazepam is
the only one suitable for this use.
105. c- Benzalkonium chloride is the only
cationic detergent in the group
listed.
106. e- Chlorinated lime is inexpensive
and effective.
107. c- An antimuscarinic drug reduces
detrusor muscle activity.108. e- These plants contain atropine,
which blocks muscarinic receptors.
109. d- Muscarinic sites are blocked by
atropine.
110. a- Manganese is involved in
formation of chondroitin sulfate in
cartilage. It is not involved in
hemoglobin synthesis.
111. c- Glucocorticoids cause this effect
by increasing the rate of
neutrophil entrance into the blood
from the marrow and decreasing
the rate of neutrophil removal
from the blood.
112. d- Heparin increases the activity of
antithrombin III, which forms an
irreversible complex with
thrombin.
113. a
114. c- Atropine blocks the effect of
acetylcholine on the heart.
115. d- Blockade of beta-adrenergic
receptors decreases ventricular
contractility, particularly during
exercise.
116. b- The deleterious effects of toxic
concentrations of digitalis on the
heart are related to ventricular
rhythm rather than to mechanical
activity.
117. a- Heat production is a result of
metabolic activity, which is not
affected by eicosanoids.
118. b- This prostaglandin causes
contraction of the pregnant uterus
and the bronchioles.
119. d- Histamine increases heart rate,
directly, by action on the sinoatrial
node and, reflexively, in response
to the fall in blood pressure.
120. b- This causes arteriolar dilation andreduction of aldosterone secretion.
121. c- Whitfields ointment contains
benzoic and salicylic acids. These
compounds are fungistatic and
keratolytic.
122. d- In this situation, the vehicle should
not irritate the tissue and should
be readily removed from the skin
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27surface.
123. b- Menthol is incorporated into some
topical preparations to cause this
effect.
124. d
Ci Ci 10, 000
7.4 = 3.4 + log Cn; 4 = log Cn; 4 = log 1
125. a- Induction of microsomal enzymes
increases the rate of
biotransformation of the inducing
agent and/or other drugs.
126. a- The succinate ester confers water
solubility on the steroid base. The
solution is quickly absorbed from
the site of deposition.
127. c- If a corticosteroid is given on
alternate days, there will be several
hours during which there is no
inhibition of ACTH secretion. The
effect of ACTH prevents atrophy of
the adrenal cortex.
128. b- Administration of neostigmine
would be contraindicated in all of
the conditions listed except
paralytic ileus. The need for a
specific diagnosis is clear.
129. a- This combination of actions is
unique to metoclopramide and
prevents esophageal reflux of
gastric fluid.
130. c- This class of drugs is concentrated
in the perilymph and endolymph,and causes damage to the hair
cells in the vestibular apparatus
and cochlea.
131. a- Erythromycin is excreted in active
form into the bile.
132. d- Griseofulvin is retained in the
keratin and hair, and exerts a
continuous effect on mycotic
infections of the skin.
133. c- This action results in increased
excretion of sodium, chloride and
water.
134. a- Mannitol is not metabolized or
resorbed by the kidney and is
useful as an osmotic diuretic and
to relieve edema in tissues, such as
cerebral edema.
135. b- Methotrexate blocks conversion of
folic acid to folinic acid, which is
the functional coenzyme. If folinic
acid is given to the animal, the
effect of methotrexate is obviated.
136. d- Gastrointestinal mucosal cells
have a rapid turnover rate. Such
cells are vulnerable to
antineoplastic drugs.
137. c- Leucovorin is a reduced,
functional folate coenzyme.
138. d- Methadone is a synthetic opioid
analgesic that alleviates visceral
pain.
139. a- An effective dose in cattle is only
1/10 of that required for horses,
dogs and cats, and 1/20 to 1/30 of
that required for swine.
140. d- Renal clearance of salicylate (pKa
3.0) is increased in alkaline urine.
141. c- Urochloralic acid gives a false-
positive result in tests for reducing
sugars.
142. a- Barbital, a long-actingbarbiturate, is excreted unchanged
by the kidneys.
143. b- Selenium is a component of
glutathione reductase, which
decreases formation of free
radicals that are involved in lipid
peroxidation of membranes.
144. e- Niacin deficiency in dogs causes
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28oral ulceration, thick saliva, and a
darkened appearance of the
tongue.
145. a- These effects are associated most
commonly with the phenothiazines
but could also be seen with the
butyrophenones, as these effects
are associated with dopaminergic
receptors.
146. b- Allergic reactions to acepromazine
are apparently extremely rare as
compared with the other adverse
effects listed, as they are not
reported.
147. a- The other drugs listed either
cannot be injected or are not
effective against whipworms.
148. c- Benzimidazoles have a wide
margin of safety in clinical use.
149. e- Virtually all of the drug would be
eliminated from the body after 5
half-lives have elapsed.
150. c- The plateau would occur over a
period equivalent to 5 half-lives
after the drug had been
administered.
151. a- Alpha-adrenergic agonists, such as
phenylephrine, constrict mucosal
blood vessels.
152. d- Beta-adrenergic agonists, such as
isoproterenol, dilate arterioles in
the muscle. This reducesperipheral resistance and
decreases blood pressure.
153. c- Pilocarpine is well absorbed from
ophthalmic solutions and
ointments, and causes contraction
of the pupillary sphincter.
154. d- Quinidine is the only appropriate
choice.
155. a- Hypercalcemia or hypokalemia
increases the sensitivity of the
myocardium to digitalis.
156. b- Morphine dilates capacitance
vessels in the systemic circulation,
which resultant redistribution of
blood away from the pulmonary
circulation.
157. a- The half-life for salicylate is only
30 minutes in cattle.
158. d- Acetophenetidin and
acetaminophen are weak
inhibitors of cyclooxygenase in
peripheral tissues, as compared
with their effect in the central
nervous system.
159. b- These drugs prolong the effects of
other drugs, such as the increased
sleeping time seen in barbiturate
anesthesia.
160. d- Brain tissue has a high lipid
content.
161. a- Irritating drug solutions are
infused slowly into a vein to allow
for dilution.
162. d- An excess (Cushings disease) or a
deficiency (Addisons disease) of
cortisol causes muscular weakness.
163. b- The fluorine atom at the 9 position
withdraws electrons from the
hydroxyl group at the 11 position
and enhances all biologicalactivities.
164. e- The sodium salts of the other
sulfonamides listed are extremely
alkaline and would injure the eye.
165. c- Use of chloramphenicol in these
animals is prohibited because of
the fear that residues in food
products might cause aplastic
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29anemia in susceptible people.
166. a- Tetracyclines chelate divalent
cations, such as calcium in dairy
products, and this impairs
absorption of the antibiotic.
167. a- Streptozocin is used to treat
pancreatic insulinoma.
168. e- Cyclophosphamide is a pro-drug
that is activated by hepatic
microsomal enzymes.
169. c- Equilibration occurs more rapidly
when the agent is not soluble in
blood.
170. e- Halothane decreases cardiac
output and suppresses reflex
tachycardia.
171. b- Ketamine causes muscle jerking
and delirium when used alone for
anesthesia of dogs.
172. b- Chloramphenicol is converted to
inactive arylamines in the
reducing environment of the
rumen.
173. c- Motor activity of the internal
urethral sphincter is mediated by
sympathetic nerves. Receptors are
of the alpha-adrenergic type.
174. d- Bethanechol is a cholinergic drug.
175. a- The actions of ephedrine are
similar to those of epinephrine, but
ephedrine can be given orally and
it has a longer duration of action.176. d- When a patient is digitalized, the
dosage is titrated until a clinical
effect is attained.
177. e- Procainamide is the only drug
listed that is effective for treatment
of supraventricular arrhythmias.
178. b- The other drugs listed do not have
this action.
179. c- Phenylbutazone acts by inhibiting
synthesis of prostaglandins, not by
modifying their effects.
180. b- Aspirin is the only drug listed that
acetylates cyclooxygenase and
irreversibly abolishes synthesis of
thromboxane in platelets.
181. d- Because of their lipid solubility,
nonpolar drugs diffuse from
tubular fluid into the blood in the
peritubular capillaries, rather than
being eliminated in the urine.
182. c- Most drugs are relatively small
molecules that diffuse across
membranes in response to
concentration gradients.
183. d- It does this by adding to the drug
molecule more water-soluble
groups, such as glucuronate or
hydroxyl groups.
184. a- This effect is significant clinically
as it interferes with normal wound
healing.
185. c- The bone marrow of dogs is
particularly sensitive to estrogen,
which inhibits stem cells.
186. b- Corticosteroids inhibit healing,
and this may lead to corneal
perforation and loss of aqueous.
187. b- Chloramphenicol is reduced and
conjugated in the liver. The other
drugs listed are eliminated largely
unchanged.188. b- Gentamicin has a wide spectrum
of antibacterial activity and is
eliminated unchanged by the
kidneys.
189. d- Sulfonamide solutions are too
irritating to be injected into
tissues.
190. b- Anthracycline antibiotics, such as
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30doxorubicin, cause cumulative
dose-related cardiomyopathy.
191. d- Vinca alkaloids, such as
vincristine, interfere with
assembly of microtubules during
cell division.
192. d- Yohimbine is an alpha-2
adrenoceptor antagonist.
193. a- The antihypertensive drug
diazoxide suppresses insulin
release through an alpha-
adrenergic effect on pancreatic
beta cells.
194. c- Vasopressin tannate is more slowly
absorbed than the other
preparations listed.
195. b- Oral hypoglycemic drugs increase
secretion of insulin in the
remaining pancreatic islet cells.
196. c- Amphotericin is a polyene
antibiotic that causes a wide
variety of untoward effects in
patients.
197. d- For this reason, cuprimyxin is
useful in treatment of otitis
externa.
198. a- Ketoconazole requires an acidic
environment for dissolution.
Ranitidine blocks gastric acid
secretion.
199. a- Insulin and glucose drive
potassium intracellularly, causing
hypokalemia.200. e- The corticosteroid exerts
antilymphocytic effects.
201. e- This allows persistence of the
neurotransmitter at its receptor
site and accentuates the effect.
202. b- Tetracyclines are effective for
treatment of anaplasmosis and for
elimination of the carrier state.
203. c- This unusual effect, which is
permanent, would seem to dictate
that this group of drugs should be
avoided for use in immature
animals.
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31