eng26313 Test Bank Chapter 1...

Chapter 1: Test Bank Questions

1. During the early years of the United States, a doctor’s training required:

a) high school.

b) an apprenticeship with a licensed doctor.

c) time spent in an almshouse.

d) no standardized training.

2. The goal of public health is to:

a) educate communities to prevent illness.

b) assist with recovery from illness or disease.

c) document when illness occurs.

d) recognize and diagnose illness or disease.

3. An example of an infectious disease would be:

a) epilepsy.

b) asthma.

c) cholera.

d) heart failure.

4. Andrew is a 38-‐year-‐old unemployed man with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. He cannot work due to his disability. He is most likely to pay for his healthcare with:

a) group insurance.

b) Medicare.

c) managed care insurance.

d) Medicaid.

5. Nancy was seen by the doctor in the urgent care for an infection. The visit was not paid for by her insurance company because she has only spent $870 on healthcare so far this year. She needs to spend a minimum amount of $1,000 before her insurance company begins to pay. This minimum amount is called a:

a) co-‐pay.

b) deductible.

c) premium.

d) renewal fee.

6. Florence Nightingale founded the basics of nursing care by focusing on:

a) helping the sick and injured.

b) building a large medical facility.

c) only helping people who could pay her.

d) race and religion.

7. Medicare is the federally funded medical plan that gives health insurance access to:

a) newborn infants.

b) the unemployed.

c) the older adult.

d) the director of nursing.

8. An example of a chronic illness is:

a) the common cold.

b) a broken leg.

c) childbirth.

d) asthma.

9. Almshouses were places of refuge for:

a) the poor.

b) the largest families.

c) medical doctors.

d) lost animals.

10. A deductible is a:

a) set amount of money that the individual must pay for healthcare services before the insurance company will start to pay for any services used.

b) meal plan.

c) type of health insurance.

d) federal program to assist older adults.


1. A consumer of healthcare is:

a) the client.

b) the client’s family.

c) the client’s doctor.

d) both a and b.

2. Another name for outpatient surgery is:

a) ambulatory surgery.

b) convalescent surgery.

c) mobile surgery.

d) walk-‐in surgery.

3. Stanley is a 70-‐year-‐old man who recently had surgery in a local hospital. His condition is stable, but he requires 24-‐hour nursing care. He is most likely to be:

a) readmitted to the medical-‐surgical floor of the hospital.

b) released to his home with his spouse.

c) admitted to a long-‐term care facility.

d) admitted to an assisted-‐living center for rehabilitation and therapy.

4. Due to the increasing healthcare information online, the nursing assistant will be expected to:

a) take additional online courses.

b) keep current on new advances in medicine.

c) teach clients about their medical condition.

d) assist the nurse to dispel incorrect information.

5. A 93-‐year-‐old client who is receiving home health services after being discharged from the hospital and recovering from an illness might expect to have those services paid for by:

a) managed care insurance.

b) Medicare.

c) private funds.

d) Medicaid.

6. Common alternative therapies include:

a) herbal remedies.

b) medications from the pharmacy.

c) surgery.

d) X-‐rays.

7. Alert your supervisor if your client:

a) is reading about her medical condition.

b) states she enjoys doing yoga at home.

c) asks to use the bedpan.

d) is taking an herbal supplement.

8. A 2–3 night stay in the hospital may be required for a:

a) chest X-‐ray.

b) blood sugar check.

c) mole removal.

d) surgical procedure.

9. A nursing home provides:

a) 24-‐hour care.

b) an outdoor pool.

c) meals on wheels.

d) 8-‐hour care.


1. The client is referred to as a resident when he or she is admitted to:

a) a skilled nursing facility.

b) a hospice facility.

c) a community-‐based residential facility (CBRF).

d) both a and c.

2. Services for a client in a rehabilitation hospital are likely to include:

a) respite care.

b) IV medications.

c) activity programs.

d) surgery.

3. Respite care facilities are regulated by:

a) the state government.

b) the federal government.

c) the Joint Commission.

d) both the state and federal government.

4. Mrs. Milton is found to be stable following her hip surgery and no longer needs daily nursing care. Mr. Milton is able to care for her at home, but she needs physical therapy to strengthen her hip and leg. The best option for her is to:

a) go to a subacute hospital.

b) find an assisted-‐living facility that offers therapy.

c) return home and go to outpatient therapy.

d) be admitted to a nursing home.

5. A nursing assistant who works for an assisted-‐living facility can expect to:

a) have different client assignments daily.

b) take frequent vital signs.

c) spend most of the shift giving one-‐on-‐one care.

d) help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.

6. Mr. Krieger has been able to take care of himself at home, but he has been forgetting to take his medications and occasionally wanders away and becomes lost. Because he lives alone, his family is concerned for him and wants to ensure that he is safe. The BEST option for Mr. Krieger would be to:

a) hire a nursing assistant from a hospice agency.

b) move into a community-‐based residential facility.

c) receive daily skilled nursing care.

d) have a home healthcare agency set up his medications for him.

7. If a skilled nursing facility is cited for causing immediate harm to a client, the facility would:

a) possibly lose their Medicare funding.

b) have to shut down.

c) lose the ability to have nursing assistant students for a year.

d) contact the volunteer ombudsman.

8. Nursing assistants who work in a subacute care setting provide care for clients:

a) immediately after surgery.

b) who cannot afford a hospital stay.

c) who require 24/7 nursing care.

d) during business hours.

9. The entity responsible for regulating swing bed units is:

a) the Health and Human Services Department.

b) the Joint Commission.

c) state regulators.

d) either b or c depending on the location of the units.

10. In order to work in an assisted-‐living facility, you must have:

a) passed an accredited nursing assistant course.

b) completed training as a personal caregiver.

c) received your certification from the state.

d) additional training in passing medications.


1. Members of the healthcare team with whom you may work are:

a) nursing staff, social workers, and providers.

b) public health department staff, nursing staff, and police department.

c) nursing staff, psychics, and nutritionists.

d) therapists, resident counsel, and ombudsman.

2. Chain of command is:

a) working within your scope of practice.

b) a hierarchical form of communication.

c) something used in the military but not in healthcare.

d) too difficult to understand.

3. Which of the following may delegate jobs to the nursing assistant?

a) nursing assistants

b) the client’s family

c) nurses

d) doctors

4. It is outside the scope of practice for a nursing assistant to:

a) give a client a bath.

b) insert tubes into a client’s body.

c) transfer a client from his bed to a chair.

d) help a client eat dinner.

5. The single best way for a nursing assistant to manage his time efficiently is to:

a) let the other team members answer call lights.

b) plan ahead by making a list of tasks to do.

c) save time by not taking a break.

d) only care for clients on his assigned list.

6. A good way to stay organized is to make your list of tasks:

a) at the beginning of your shift.

b) on your break.

c) during meal time.

d) when the nurse is on break.

7. The first step in refusing a delegated task is to:

a) Document the reason for your refusal.

b) Inform the director of nurses of your refusal.

c) Determine if you have been trained to perform the task.

d) Tell your immediate supervisor that you are not able to complete the task.

8. A care plan includes the client’s:

a) bank statement.

b) list of medications.

c) food likes and dislikes.

d) shoe size.

9. With additional training, you may be able to:

a) assist with dressing changes.

b) take a manual blood pressure.

c) assist with the blood glucose monitor.

d) all of the above.

10. Members of the healthcare team may include:

a) an X-‐ray technician.

b) the client’s family.

c) the client.



1. The abbreviation “ISP” that is used in assisted-‐living facilities is short for:

a) Initial Service Plan.

b) Individualized Safety Plan.

c) Independent Service Program.

d) Individualized Service Plan.

2. You are walking with Mrs. Stewart when she begins limping and grimacing in pain. She refuses to walk any further and states that she thinks she hurt her foot this morning. The subjective data to report to the nurse is that Mrs. Stewart:

a) is experiencing foot pain.

b) stated that she hurt herself.

c) is refusing to walk.

d) was limping during her walk.

3. The ability to understand what it’s like to be in another person’s situation is called:

a) sympathy.

b) empathy.

c) concern.

d) professionalism.

4. In order to develop a client’s trust, you should:

a) use easily understood yes/no questions.

b) express your sympathy.

c) be aware of nonverbal communication.

d) focus on “you” statements.

5. A nursing assistant using therapeutic communication techniques might ask a client:

a) “Do you need help with your shower?”

b) “What did you do for a living before you retired?”

c) “Would you like green beans with dinner?”

d) “Are you going home tomorrow?”

6. Thinking you know a client’s food preferences is an example of being:

a) subjective.

b) factual.

c) unbiased.

d) objective.

7. A visitor to your facility becomes angry and starts yelling, using foul language, and upsetting the clients. After making sure that you and your clients are safe, you should fill out a(n):

a) disturbance document.

b) accident report.

c) accident recording sheet.

d) incident report.

8. Client information that needs to be documented includes:

a) urinary output.

b) refusing activities.

c) unusual moods.


9. You are assisting Mr. Cassidy in the shower room when he becomes agitated and starts hitting you. The first thing you should do is:

a) back away and approach him later.

b) alert the nurse.

c) make sure Mr. Cassidy is safe.

d) take him back to his room.

10. Aspects of verbal communication include:

a) spoken words.

b) American Sign Language.

c) facial expressions.

d) both a and b.


1. The minimum number of hours a nurse aide training program is required to have is:

a) 150.

b) 65.

c) 75.

d) 25.

2. A piece of information that should be listed on a resume is your:

a) work history.

b) marital status.

c) shift preferences.

d) age.

3. Being professional means you are:

a) flexible.

b) dependable.

c) prompt.


4. Good customer service includes:

a) treating clients and family members with respect.

b) answering the telephone correctly.

c) communicating effectively.


5. If you are not Internet savvy, you can get assistance looking for employment:

a) at the local hospital.

b) by asking a friend to search for you.

c) at the Social Services Department.

d) at the local job center.

6) If your coworker makes you angry, how will you handle the situation?

a) Tell her to mind her own business.

b) Tell your supervisor that you can’t work with her.

c) Talk to her about the situation.

d) Do nothing; this is normal in healthcare.

7. When resigning from a position, you should:

a) give at least a 2-‐week notice.

b) not show up for work the next day.

c) tell your supervisor that you quit.

d) give at least a 1-‐week notice.

8. For a successful interview, you should:

a) bring your friends for support.

b) arrive at least 10 minutes early.

c) wear casual clothing with your flip flops.

d) get your makeup done professionally.

9. If your uniform pants drag on the floor, what should you do?

a) Do nothing; this is the latest fashion.

b) Hem or pin them up to an acceptable level.

c) Roll them up to your knees.

d) Wear shoes with a thicker sole.

10. Your tattoo scares your client. How should you handle this situation?

a) Tell the client that it is your right to show off your tattoo.

b) Tell the nurse that you cannot care for this client.

c) Explain the special meaning of your tattoo to the client.

d) Keep the tattoo covered while at work.


1. One of your clients is not doing well. He received a very upsetting diagnosis from his doctor this morning. His daughter comes in to visit and asks you why her father seems so sad today. The best response is to:

a) tell the daughter what happened since she is family.

b) suggest that the daughter discuss it with the client.

c) not answer in order to protect the client’s privacy.

d) inform the daughter to call the client’s doctor about his diagnosis.

2. You discover some chocolate candies in your client’s room. You know that she is on a diabetic diet and should not be eating the candies. You should:

a) take the candy out of the room.

b) tell the client that she is not allowed to have chocolate.

c) leave the candy in the room and report it to the nurse.

d) replace the candy with sugar-‐free chocolate.

3. Of the following persons listed, the one most vulnerable and at risk of abuse would be a:

a) 17-‐year-‐old high school boy.

b) 9-‐month-‐old baby girl.

c) 23-‐year-‐old college student.

d) 40-‐year-‐old married woman.

4. OSHA regulations help protect the:

a) healthcare worker.

b) long-‐term care resident.

c) client’s individual health information.

d) healthcare facility.

5. Older adult clients may be at risk of abuse because they:

a) often don’t recognize abuse when it happens.

b) strike out at others.

c) may fear losing their caregiver.

d) have little control over their actions.

6. Mr. Peterson often leaves the dining table after only eating a few bites of food. One of your coworkers decides to put his wheelchair between the wall and the table so he stays and eats. This is an example of:

a) abandonment.

b) physical abuse.

c) defamation.

d) false imprisonment.

7. One example of assault might be:

a) leaving the facility before your replacement arrives.

b) telling a client he may lie down only after he eats lunch.

c) leaving an immobile client in a locked chair.

d) not answering a client’s call light.

8. A set of attitudes and traditions that are shared by a group of people is referred to as their:

a) culture.

b) cultural competence.

c) ethnicity.

d) origins.

9. You are taking care of a client who speaks only Spanish. Since it is difficult to explain your actions to her, you should:

a) ask your supervisor for a different assignment.

b) tell the client’s family that they will need to stay to interpret.

c) ask the nurse if the facility has a translator who is available.

d) raise your voice when speaking and point at items.

10. The term “battery” refers to:

a) a purposeful action meant to harm another.

b) threatening a client with physical harm.

c) physically touching another person without their permission.

d) a time when a caregiver doesn’t follow her scope of practice.


1. The human body is made up of cells and:

a) tissues, organs, and systems.

b) tissues and minerals.

c) skin and bone.

d) organs and vitamins.

2. Each human body consists of how many cells?

a) 10

b) 1,000

c) 10,000

d) millions

3. A type of tissue only found in the integumentary system is:

a) matrix.

b) smooth.

c) epithelial.

d) nervous.

4. The integumentary system is made up of:

a) blood, cells, sweat, and hair.

b) skin, hair, sweat glands, and fingernails.

c) toenails, teeth, blood, and sugar.

d) organs, cells, vitamins, and minerals.

5. All of the following are layers of the skin EXCEPT:

a) the epidermis.

b) the dermis.

c) subcutaneous tissue.

d) the alimentary canal.

6. Normal signs of aging include:

a) skin wrinkles.

b) temperature regulation changes.

c) vision changes.


7. The musculoskeletal system is made up of:

a) bones and muscles.

b) cells and organs.

c) skin and hair.

d) blood and water.

8. Older adults are more prone to falls because:

a) they do not wear the proper shoe size.

b) they do not ask for help with transfers.

c) of increased fatigue and muscle weakness.

d) of decreased air exchange in the lungs.

9. The respiratory system is made up of:

a) lungs.

b) hair.

c) nails.

d) muscle tissue.

10. Platelets are fragments of cells that float in the blood. They help the body to:

a) fight infection.

b) clot after an injury.

c) maintain temperature.

d) maintain fluid balance.


1. An example of a nonmodifiable risk factor would be:

a) a lack of aerobic exercise.

b) a high-‐fat diet.

c) the client’s ethnic background.

d) excessive alcohol use.

2. You are a nursing assistant working at a local nursing home. One of your clients has fallen while trying to self-‐transfer. In order to activate EMS, you should:

a) contact the administrator.

b) call for the charge nurse.

c) dial 911 and wait for the ambulance.

d) call the nearest emergency room.

3. A gradual thinning of bone tissue is called:

a) kyphosis.

b) rheumatoid arthritis.

c) contracture.

d) osteoarthritis.

4. The treatment for tuberculosis (TB) includes:

a) a long-‐term medication regimen.

b) eliminating triggers that cause attacks.

c) placing the client on bed rest.

d) maintaining a low-‐fat diet.

5. You have called the nurse to your client’s room because he is complaining of chest pain. He also appears sweaty and anxious, and is holding his left arm. The client may be experiencing a(n):

a) cardiovascular accident (CVA).

b) myocardial infarction.

c) asthmatic attack.

d) transient ischemic attack (TIA).

6. The inability to speak or form words is called:

a) receptive aphasia.

b) hemiplegia.

c) expressive aphasia.

d) dyspnea.

7. You have been assigned to take care of an older woman with Parkinson’s disease. Symptoms you might expect to see include:

a) slow body movements and tremors.

b) red, swollen, and painful joints.

c) fever, cough, and night sweats.

d) frequent urination and fruity breath.

8. Lower extremity edema, frequent urination at night, and shortness of breath are common symptoms of:

a) peripheral vascular disease.

b) chronic pulmonary obstructive disease (COPD).

c) congestive heart failure (CHF).

d) diabetes mellitus.

9. Janice is an older client whom you have been taking care of at an assisted-‐living facility. Today she has been asking to go to the bathroom nearly every hour. She has also had some incontinent episodes, which is unusual for her. She has no complaints of pain, but you notice that her urine is cloudy and smells. You suspect that Janice may have:

a) a kidney stone.

b) a urinary tract infection.

c) diverticulitis.

d) atherosclerosis.

10. Maurice is one of your clients whom you are taking care of today. When you enter his room, you notice that he is shaking and appears anxious. His skin is sweaty and cool when you touch him. He seems confused when you ask if he is feeling all right. Maurice may be experiencing:

a) hyperglycemia.

b) hallucinations.

c) hypoglycemia.

d) peripheral vascular disease.


1. Older adults are at a higher risk of infection because:

a) blood circulation increases as a person ages.

b) people’s immune systems grow weaker as they age.

c) they watch more television.

d) they don’t wash their hands as often.

2. Standard precautions are:

a) only for long-‐term care facilities.

b) a way to prevent the spread of illness.

c) not cost effective.


3. Standard precautions should be practiced on:

a) only people who look sick.

b) only people who request it.

c) every person you care for.

d) only people who have HIV.

4. A nursing assistant may come into contact with microorganisms:

a) only in a public setting.

b) only by breathing.

c) only when bathing a client.

d) every time she touches something.

5. The nursing assistant must wash hands rather than use hand sanitizer:

a) before entering a client’s room.

b) after meals.

c) after using the restroom.


6. During hand washing, the nursing assistant should lather her hands for:

a) 10 seconds.

b) 60 seconds.

c) 15 seconds.

d) 20 seconds.

7. The Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) defines hand hygiene as:

a) using only hand sanitizer when hands are visibly soiled.

b) hand washing with soap and water and using alcohol-‐based hand sanitizer.

c) rinsing hands with water.

d) none of the above.

8. The MAIN reason a nursing assistant should not wear artificial nails to work is that:

a) they hurt the client.

b) clients may not like them.

c) they may be damaged from frequent hand washing.

d) they harbor bacteria.

9. Methicillin-‐resistant Staphylcoccus aureus (MRSA) can colonize the:

a) nares.

b) clothing.

c) bedside table.

d) eyes.

10. Types of precautions include:

a) standard.

b) contact.

c) airborne.



1. You have noticed that one of your coworkers seems teary and upset the last few weeks. She has not told you what is wrong, but you are worried about her. The BEST action to take would be to:

a) tell the nurse that your coworker needs help.

b) contact the facility supervisor.

c) refer her to the employee assistance plan.

d) do nothing; it is a personal problem.

2. An EAP is a service that can provide assistance to:

a) the unemployed.

b) employers during the hiring process.

c) clients with complaints or concerns.

d) employees with family problems.

3. A needlestick injury is more likely to occur in a(n):

a) assisted-‐living facility.

b) subacute hospital.

c) surgical hospital.

d) nursing home.

4. While cleaning Angela’s room, you come across one of her used insulin needles and accidentally poke yourself in the hand. Your FIRST response is to:

a) fill out an incident report.

b) wash your hands with soap and water.

c) report the incident to your supervisor.

d) go to the emergency room for an evaluation.

5. You discover one of your clients with dementia drinking from a bottle of floor cleaner. The FIRST action to take would be to:

a) alert the charge nurse.

b) contact the poison control center.

c) look up the chemical in the SDS.

d) get the client to vomit.

6. You have been working at a facility that uses latex gloves. You have noticed that your hands are red, itchy, and blistered at the end of the day. What kind of reaction is likely happening?

a) anaphylactic shock

b) latex dermatitis

c) immediate hypersensitivity

d) none; this is typical in healthcare

7. Robert is eating his lunch in his room. When you pick up his tray, you notice that he has spilled his water on the floor. You should:

a) leave it, since housekeeping will be cleaning the room.

b) ask one of your coworkers to take care of it.

c) mop up the floor and then take the tray out of the room.

d) leave a towel on the floor to soak up the water.

8. You are assisting with a client’s shower when you slip on the wet floor. Luckily, you were able to catch yourself and don’t think you have been hurt. You should:

a) fill out an incident report.

b) report the incident if you start feeling pain.

c) ask a coworker to finish the shower while you go home.

d) do nothing since you weren’t hurt.

9. Employers try to control exposure to blood-‐borne pathogens by:

a) offering free hepatitis B vaccines to employees.

b) providing only latex gloves for employees.

c) offering free chicken pox vaccines.

d) both b and c.

10. You are ambulating Joe in the hallway with his walker and a gait belt. A coworker is following behind with Joe’s wheelchair. Joe becomes shaky and weak. The BEST thing to do is to:

a) walk him back to his room and lay him down.

b) lower him to the floor using the gait belt.

c) immediately sit him in his wheelchair.

d) call out to the nurse for assistance.


1. Strategies to prevent falls can include:

a) keeping the bed in the lowest position and locked.

b) encouraging visits from family members.

c) keeping the call light within the client’s reach.


2. The number one killer of older adults is:

a) diabetes.

b) falls.

c) C. Diff.

d) heart attacks.

3. A client is at an increased risk for falls if he:

a) attends exercise class.

b) has a history of falls.

c) is over 75 years old.

d) drinks too much coffee.

4. A tab alarm in a wheelchair is:

a) not a fall prevention strategy.

b) a fall prevention strategy.

c) necessary for client safety.

d) very expensive.

5. As a client is falling, the nursing assistant must:

a) yell for another nursing assistant to help.

b) assist the client to the floor while protecting the client’s head from injury.

c) stop the client from falling by holding her up with the gait belt.

d) let go of the client so as to not cause self-‐injury.

6. If a client falls, update the nurse:

a) after you get the client back to bed.

b) at the end of the shift.

c) only if the client is hurt.

d) immediately following the fall.

7. Two different types of alarm systems are:

a) push and pull alarms.

b) up and down alarms.

c) pressure and tab alarms.

d) black and white alarms.

8. Fall prevention is the responsibility of:

a) nursing assistants.

b) nurses.

c) clients.


9. Anti-‐roll-‐back brakes on the wheelchair:

a) reduce the risk of injury from falls.

b) allow the resident to go faster.

c) are a state requirement.

d) should be locked at all times.

10. What intervention can be used if a client is at risk for falling out of bed at night?

a) Place soft pads on the floor next to the bed.

b) Put the bed side rails up.

c) Have the bed in an upright position.

d) Allow the client to sleep in a recliner.


1. The goal of restraining a client is to:

a) keep the client from falling.

b) reduce agitation.

c) keep the client safe.

d) stop the client from hitting staff.

2. One of your clients has an order for a vest restraint. This should be applied when the client is in:

a) his wheelchair.

b) his bed.

c) either the bed or wheelchair.

d) a recliner near the nurse’s desk.

3. Thomas has a wrist restraint to prevent him from pulling out his IV. He complains to you that his hand is tingling. You should:

a) loosen the restraint and check him in 15 minutes.

b) report his complaint to the nurse immediately.

c) do range-‐of-‐motion exercises.

d) remove the restraint, since it is bothering him.

4. Ensuring that a restraint is released every 2 hours is the responsibility of the:

a) client’s nurse.

b) charge nurse.

c) nursing assistant.

d) licensed practical nurse.

5. An example of a restraint would be:

a) locking the wheelchair while you transfer a client.

b) locking the bed in the lowest position.

c) placing a positioning device on the client’s bed.

d) locking the wheelchair while assisting a client with his meal.

6. A nursing assistant is MOST likely to use a restraint in a(n):

a) long-‐term care facility.

b) assisted-‐living facility.

c) emergency room.

d) respite care facility.

7. Esther has a seat belt on her wheelchair to prevent her from getting out of her wheelchair. When you help Esther with her supper, you should:

a) leave the belt on while she is eating.

b) release the belt but lock her wheelchair.

c) loosen the belt for comfort.

d) release the belt while she is supervised.

8. Restraints used while a client is in bed should be fastened with a:

a) quick-‐release knot to the side rails.

b) quick-‐release knot to the bed frame.

c) safety knot to the bed frame.

d) safety knot to the side rails.

9. Annabelle is a client with dementia who has been yelling and hitting staff when they try to wake her up and help her get dressed in the morning. You are worried that she might hurt someone. To prevent an injury, the nursing assistant should:

a) apply a wrist restraint while giving care.

b) work slowly and quietly.

c) provide care only when she asks.

d) use the same approach daily.

10. The nursing assistant needs to release a physical restraint:

a) every 2 hours to care for the client’s needs.

b) every 15 minutes to check the client’s skin.

c) when the nurse instructs her to do so.

d) if the client does not give consent.


1. Anaphylactic shock is a:

a) severe hypersensitivity reaction.

b) mild form of shock.

c) body response to a heart attack.

d) condition that is not very serious.

2. A full-‐thickness burn:

a) is not serious.

b) presents as blisters.

c) may not hurt initially.

d) includes all of the above.

3. An aura is:

a) always visual.

b) a feeling or visual disturbance.

c) a predictor of a heart attack.


4. An extreme loss of blood and fluid can result in:

a) hypovolemic shock.

b) anaphylactic shock.

c) a severe allergic reaction.

d) cardiogenic shock.

5. Syncope is the same as:

a) poisoning.

b) heart attack.

c) fainting.

d) bleeding.

6. When emergency situations arise, it is important to:

a) be prepared.

b) seek help.

c) stay calm.

d) do all of the above.

7. If a client is coughing during lunch, what should you do?

a) Allow him to keep coughing.

b) Start chest compressions.

c) Start abdominal thrusts immediately.

d) Leave the client to go get the nurse.

8. Cardiac arrest occurs when:

a) there is a temporary and sudden loss of consciousness.

b) the heart cannot contract and pump blood.

c) there is disrupted electrical activity within the brain.

d) there is a partial or mild airway obstruction.

9. If cardiac function is not restored, the client will:

a) always survive if given CPR.

b) yell at the emergency medical personnel.

c) have a good chance of survival.

d) lose consciousness and die.

10. The first thing a nursing assistant needs to recognize in an emergency situation is that:

a) an emergency exists and EMS should be activated.

b) you can never leave the patient alone.

c) the nurse will always be the first person to contact.

d) you must rely on your subjective hunch.


1. A nursing assistant who likes to keep busy would enjoy working in:

a) home health.

b) respite care.

c) long-‐term care.

d) assisted living.

2. Endorphins help a person fight off stress by:

a) toning muscles.

b) promoting a feeling of well-‐being.

c) decreasing heart rate.

d) improving deep breathing.

3. The goal of meditation is to:

a) instill a sense of calm in one’s self.

b) increase social interactions.

c) increase endorphins.

d) help achieve life goals.

4. When meditating, a client should focus on:

a) slow, deep breathing.

b) a word or phrase.

c) an object in the room.

d) whatever works best for her.

5. Aviaries and fish tanks can be used in facilities to:

a) offer a distraction.

b) reduce pain in clients.

c) give clients a responsibility.


6. A good way for a nursing assistant to vent her feelings after a bad day is to:

a) talk to her coworkers after the shift is done.

b) confide in a close friend.

c) write her thoughts down in a private notebook.

d) email the director of nursing.

7. To fight off fatigue and headaches, a person should breathe using:

a) the abdomen.

b) the chest.

c) both chest and abdomen.

d) either chest or abdomen.

8. A client says that her shoulders ache and asks if you could massage her back. What should you do?

a) Massage her back and shoulders and then report this to the nurse.

b) Tell her that you cannot do this because it is not in your scope of practice.

c) Offer her pain medication and a heating pad to comfort her.

d) Ensure that a massage is not contraindicated and then massage her back.

9. Clara was admitted to a semi-‐private hospital room last night and hasn’t been able to sleep. Her roommate has a large family visiting, and you need to get her vital signs every 4 hours. To help Clara get rest, you should:

a) get her vital signs only during the day.

b) limit her roommate’s visitors.

c) reposition her every 2 hours.

d) enter the room quietly and only as needed.

10. The FIRST stage of grief is:

a) acceptance.

b) denial.

c) bargaining.

d) anger.


1. Asking a client what she wants to eat today is a good example of meeting her need for:

a) safety.

b) love and belonging.

c) self-‐actualization.

d) esteem.

2. What might the activities department do for a client?

a) Offer activities that are appropriate for all chronological ages and developmental stages.

b) Take all clients out at least twice a month.

c) Meet the social needs of the client.

d) both a and c

3. An example of homeostasis could be the client:

a) having regular bowel movements.

b) sleeping 4 hours a night.

c) having swollen legs.

d) doing all of the above.

4. Spirituality can be supported by:

a) skipping church to attend the Packers football game.

b) offering religious services or activities to the client.

c) taking the client to your church.

d) letting the client sleep through the religious service.

5. Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs addresses the social, creative, emotional, and spiritual potential within a person?

a) self-‐actualization

b) esteem

c) love and belonging

d) physiological

6. The most basic human needs include:

a) food.

b) water.

c) sleep.


7. Esteem means:

a) reaching a persons a person’s full potential.

b) establishing good relationships.

c) respect or admiration for self and others.

d) meeting basic human needs.

8. An intervention that can help a client feel safe might be:

a) pushing the client in a wheelchair.

b) providing the call light before you leave the room.

c) taking the client to the restroom on a schedule.

d) shutting off the lights at night.

9. A preschooler has met his developmental milestone when:

a) he trusts the primary caregivers.

b) long-‐term relationships are started.

c) he learns new skills and principles.

d) he wants to contribute to the next generation.

10. Causes of pain could include:

a) hunger.

b) tiredness.

c) swelling.



1. A storm has caused your facility to lose electrical power. The facility should:

a) evacuate the clients to a different location.

b) have the nursing assistants use flashlights.

c) use the backup generator.

d) wait to see when the power returns.

2. Marcus needs to use oxygen at all times. There isn’t enough room in the dining room during supper for his oxygen machine and all of the other residents. What should occur?

a) Marcus should eat in his room for all meals.

b) The facility should offer two meal times to accommodate all resident needs.

c) Marcus should eat in the dining room after supper.

d) The nursing assistant should place the oxygen machine in the hallway.

3. Esther has pain in her hands from arthritis and is having a hard time pressing the call light button. You should:

a) offer pain medication.

b) keep her near the nurse’s desk at all times.

c) locate a pressure pad light to place in her room.

d) give her a bell to ring when she needs help.

4. A client’s closet in a long-‐term care facility must:

a) have shelves and clothing racks.

b) be shared with the client’s roommate.

c) be at least 20 sq. ft. in size.

d) have easy-‐access handles.

5. Dependent incontinent clients have their incontinence garments changed:

a) every 4 hours and as needed.

b) only when requested.

c) only when it is soiled.

d) every 2 hours and as needed.

6. Walkie-‐talkies are often used in assisted-‐living facilities in order to:

a) contact the client’s family quickly.

b) communicate between coworkers.

c) call 911 if there is an emergency.

d) do none of the above; they are used in hospitals only.

7. You are clearing tables in the dining room and notice that one of the clients has spilled a drink onto the floor. You should:

a) mop up the spill immediately.

b) tell another nursing assistant to mop the floor.

c) mop up the floor after you have finished clearing tables.

d) ask housekeeping to take care of the spill.

8. A nursing home client unable to pay for services can be discharged:

a) after a 90-‐day notice is given.

b) only if he is admitted to another nursing home.

c) only if he is able to return home safely.

d) after a 30-‐day notice is given.

9. A long-‐term care facility MUST have hand rails located:

a) in the dining room.

b) on both sides of the corridors.

c) in the shower room.

d) on one side of the corridor.

10. A copy of a client’s discharge notice is sent to the client or to:

a) the client’s doctor.

b) one of the client’s family members.

c) the client’s power of attorney.

d) the ombudsman.


1. The goal of debridement is to:

a) remove healthy tissue.

b) remove dead tissue.

c) strengthen the tissue.


2. The nursing assistant can help prevent skin breakdown by:

a) encouraging fluid intake.

b) repositioning every 2 hours in bed.

c) offering protein-‐rich foods.


3. The best way to prevent rashes in a client who has skin folds is to:

a) keep the area clean and dry.

b) not rinse the soap after cleansing.

c) apply lotion to the area daily.

d) only wash once per day.

4. Where could skin breakdown occur if the client is lying in the supine position?

a) coccyx, elbows, and heels

b) buttocks, knees, and toes

c) ear, hip, and ankles

d) all of the above

5. A stage-‐one pressure injury appears as:

a) a partial-‐thickness skin loss.

b) intact reddened skin.

c) a full-‐thickness skin loss.

d) a shallow crater.

6. Friction and shearing injuries often occur while the client is:

a) sitting in the wheelchair.

b) in a side-‐lying position.

c) in a Fowler’s position.

d) in a supine position.

7. Stage-‐two and stage-‐three pressure injuries can be very:

a) painful.

b) scarred.

c) swollen.

d) hidden.

8. One of the main functions of our skin is to:

a) carry nutrients.

b) clump melanocytes.

c) protect from infection.

d) transport oxygen.

9. Stage-‐four pressure injuries involve damage to:

a) the dermis.

b) the epidermis.

c) the subcutaneous tissue.


10. Poor nutrition and consumption of calories can result in:

a) a stroke.

b) a heart attack.

c) dehydration.

d) pressure injuries.


1. To reposition a client in bed, the best tool the nursing assistant can use is the:

a) draw sheet.

b) incontinence pad.

c) fitted sheet.

d) mattress pad.

2. You should collect linens in the following order:

a) fitted sheet, top sheet, draw sheet, top sheet, pillowcase, bath blanket.

b) bedspread, blanket, top sheet, fitted sheet, bath blanket, pillowcase.

c) bath blanket, fitted sheet, draw sheet, top sheet, blanket, bedspread, pillowcase.

d) bath blanket, pillowcase, bedspread, blanket, top sheet, fitted sheet, draw sheet.

3. You need to make an occupied bed, but your facility does not have bath blankets. You should:

a) dress the client in bed and then make her bed.

b) make the bed without covering the client.

c) have the client sit in a chair while you make the bed.

d) use the bedspread to cover the client.

4. Linens in long-‐term care facilities are typically changed:

a) every day.

b) once or twice a week.

c) every 2 weeks.

d) only as needed.

5. You enter a client’s room with linens to make an occupied bed change. You should place the linens on the:

a) client’s bed.

b) roommate’s bed.

c) overbed table.

d) soiled linen bag.

6. Linens should be fanfolded to one side of the bed when the client is:

a) being transferred from a stretcher to the bed.

b) ready to go to bed for the night.

c) first admitted to the hospital.

d) at risk of developing pressure injuries.

7. Side rails that are raised during an occupied bed change:

a) are considered a positioning aid.

b) should be lowered when you are done.

c) should be left raised to prevent falls.

d) both a and b.

8. The draw sheet should be placed on the bed:

a) folded in half with the fold to the foot of the bed.

b) folded in half with the fold toward the head of the bed.

c) unfolded with the wide hem at the head of the bed.

d) with the absorbent white side facing up.

9. When making a bed, you should place the top edge of the bedspread:

a) 12 inches below the top of the mattress.

b) 6 inches above the top of the mattress.

c) even with the top of the mattress.

d) 6 inches below the top of the mattress.

10. You work in an assisted-‐living facility and have just changed the linens on a client’s bed. What should you do with the soiled linens?

a) Place them in the facility hamper.

b) Carry them to the laundry room with gloved hands.

c) Place them in the client’s personal hamper.

d) Place them in the client’s bathroom and collect when doing laundry.


1. Clients must be repositioned while in bed at least every:

a) 1 hour.

b) 2 hours.

c) 3 hours.

d) 4 hours.

2. To relieve pressure while in the supine position, pillows should be placed under:

a) the head, heels, and elbows.

b) the head and between the knees.

c) the head, shins, and hips.

d) the elbows only.

3. A client must be placed in this position to receive an enema:

a) prone.

b) Sims’s.

c) Fowler’s.

d) supine.

4. To prevent pressure injuries from developing while a client is sitting in the wheelchair, the nursing assistant should make sure that the client has:

a) her buttocks all the way back in the chair.

b) her feet touching the floor.

c) her feet elevated on the wheelchair foot rests.

d) both a and b.

5. A client in the high-‐Fowler’s position has the head of bed elevated:

a) 80–90 degrees.

b) 60–70 degrees.

c) 20–30 degrees.

d) 90–100 degrees.

6. What position would you place your client in while watching television in bed?

a) high-‐Fowler’s

b) Sims’s

c) side-‐lying

d) Fowler’s

7. The nursing assistant must ensure that the client is not resting on the trochanter when in this position:

a) Sims’s.

b) side-‐lying.

c) lateral.

d) high-‐Fowler’s.

8. What position reduces the risk of injury to the bowel during a high-‐volume enema?

a) prone

b) supine

c) Sims’s

d) side-‐lying

9. After repositioning your client, always:

a) lower and lock the bed.

b) ensure that the client is comfortable.

c) complete hand hygiene.


10. When repositioning the client from a supine to a side-‐lying position:

a) raise the side rail on the opposite side of the bed you are working on.

b) raise the head of the bed before moving the client.

c) place a pillow behind the head and under the heels.

d) leave the side rail up when finished for safety.


1. Anita is a client who needs to be moved up in bed. You are unable to find a coworker to assist you. You should:

a) wait until a coworker is available.

b) have her roll onto her side instead.

c) stand at the head of the bed and use the draw sheet.

d) have her use the trapeze to assist in moving upward.

2. When repositioning a client in bed, have him place his hands:

a) above his head.

b) along his sides.

c) across his stomach or chest.

d) on his hips or thighs.

3. The use of a shearing prevention device means that:

a) the nursing assistant is able to move a client in bed by herself.

b) the nursing assistant is less likely to cause injury to herself and the client.

c) the nursing assistant can use her back muscles to move the client.


4. Dangling is used when a client is:

a) being assisted into a chair.

b) ambulating independently in the hallway.

c) moving from a lying to a sitting position.

d) watching television in bed.

5. A client who is able to bear weight but has a hard time stepping sideways is likely to be transferred using a:

a) mechanical lift.

b) trapeze.

c) gait belt only.

d) pivot disc and gait belt.

6. Transferring a client with a sit-‐to-‐stand device requires:

a) two assistants if the client is confused.

b) two nursing assistants at all times.

c) one assistant and a gait belt.

d) one assistant at all times.

7. You have assisted your client from a lying to sitting position on the bed. While letting him dangle at the side of the bed, you should:

a) get a gait belt from the supply area.

b) stand in front of the client.

c) pick out clothes from the closet.

d) sit with the client until he is ready to stand.

8. A client who is unable to bear weight needs to be transferred with a:

a) mechanical lift and two nursing assistants.

b) sit-‐to-‐stand device and two nursing assistants.

c) mechanical lift and one nursing assistant.

d) gait belt and pivot disc.

9. When not using your gait belt, you should place it:

a) behind the client’s door.

b) in the clean supply area.

c) around your waist or in your pocket.

d) on the back of the client’s wheelchair.

10. When transferring a client with a one assist and gait belt, you should:

a) grasp the gait belt with one hand just above the client’s stomach.

b) stand in front of the client and bend at the waist.

c) grasp the gait belt with both hands and bend at the knees.

d) hold the gait belt with one hand while lifting under the arms.


1. This can help relieve the pain and swelling associated with acute injuries:

a) ice pack.

b) topical ointment.

c) ambulation.

d) aqua K pad.

2. A walker should be the height of the client’s:

a) upper arm.

b) knee.

c) waist.

d) hip.

3. The quad cane should be placed in the client’s:

a) affected hand.

b) clients should not use a quad cane.

c) unaffected hand.


4. Range-‐of-‐motion exercises are performed to:

a) prevent contractures.

b) rehabilitate a paralyzed extremity.

c) strengthen a weak extremity.


5. Proper footwear for ambulation can include:

a) nonskid slipper socks.

b) socks and shoes.

c) slippers with a rubber sole.


6. Wheelchair locks are used when:

a) ambulating a client down the hallway.

b) assisting the client with a quad cane.

c) transferring a client from the bed to a wheelchair.

d) placing the client at the dining room table.

7. Range-‐of-‐motion exercises can be performed on:

a) neck and shoulders.

b) knees and hips.

c) fingers and toes.


8. An example of a common assistive device is a:

a) mechanical lift.

b) pair of grip socks.

c) cane.

d) gait belt.

9. Exercise and ambulation are essential to:

a) the client’s self-‐esteem.

b) the client’s musculoskeletal health.

c) the client’s digestive health.


10. You can assist the independent client with exercise or ambulation by:

a) using verbal encouragement.

b) being close during ambulation.

c) using a gait belt during ambulation and movement.

d) doing nothing; you do not need to assist an independent client.


1. John is a 50-‐year-‐old client who is working on ambulation and fine motor control in his hands following a motorcycle accident. Those involved in his therapy might include:

a) an occupational therapist.

b) his wife and children.

c) the physical therapist.

d) both a and c.

2. Juanita has a pressure injury on her tailbone that requires treatment. The person responsible for the treatment could be:

a) the physical therapist.

b) the occupational therapist.

c) the speech therapist.


3. The first step in a client’s physical therapy is:

a) an evaluation by the nurse.

b) the therapist determines the client’s goals.

c) an evaluation by the physical therapist.

d) the therapist designs a plan of care.

4. IADL activities might include learning how to:

a) walk with a prosthetic leg.

b) cook supper with a broken arm.

c) wash yourself following a stroke.

d) climb stairs safely.

5. The physical therapist works mostly on:

a) swallowing difficulties.

b) restorative efforts.

c) fine motor skills.

d) gross motor skills.

6. The person responsible for maintaining a client’s level of ability through range-‐of-‐motion exercises is the:

a) occupational therapist.

b) restorative aide or nursing assistant.

c) registered nurse or licensed practical nurse.

d) physical therapist.

7. The goal of activities therapy is to:

a) maintain a client’s hobbies and interests.

b) keep clients busy throughout the day.

c) maintain the client’s ability to care for herself.

d) restore gross motor skills.

8. You notice that one of your clients is having difficulties at meal time. She has trouble swallowing her fluids and coughs with each bite. The person who could BEST help her would be the:

a) occupational therapist.

b) restorative aide.

c) speech language pathologist.

d) physical therapist.

9. The activities department must offer activities that are based on:

a) the client’s developmental stage.

b) the client’s interests.

c) the client’s need for self-‐actualization.


10. Gayle is an older client who uses a wheelchair to move about the facility. You encourage her to ambulate with you, but she often refuses. You should:

a) encourage her to walk in her room.

b) inform the nurse that Gayle no longer walks.

c) tell Gayle that she needs to ambulate at least twice a day.

d) refer her to the physical therapist.


1. After taking off your client’s prosthesis, you see a small blistered area. You should:

a) cleanse the area with hydrogen peroxide to dry the blister.

b) tell the client to look at it in the morning before putting the prosthesis on.

c) do nothing; a small blister is nothing to worry about.

d) report the blister to the nurse immediately.

2. Your client has Parkinson’s disease and is quite shaky at meal times. He wants to be as independent as possible. What type of device can help him?

a) a cup with handles

b) a cup with cover

c) a nosey cup

d) none of the above

3. Your client uses a hand splint. Tonight when you are taking off the splint to clean it, you see a small crack in the splint where the index finger lies. You decide to:

a) take the splint to the nurse for repair.

b) do nothing; it is only a small crack.

c) put a small amount of glue in the crack.

d) wash the splint with mild soap and water.

4. A prosthesis is best described as:

a) an artificial limb or body part.

b) a brace, splint, or orthopedic device.

c) a tool used to make the client more independent.


5. Your client recently had a hip replacement. His doctor told him that he cannot bend at the hip greater than 90 degrees. What type of adaptive tool may he need at home?

a) shoehorn

b) elastic shoelaces

c) long-‐handled bath sponge

d) all of the above

6. A nosey cup is used for the client who:

a) cannot tilt his head back to drink.

b) has a hand tremor.

c) does not have good wrist flexion.

d) cannot open his mouth adequately.

7. Adaptive tools used to make clients more independent at meal times may include:

a) large-‐handled flatware.

b) lipped plates.

c) cups with handles.


8. How often should the nursing assistant check the skin beneath the prosthesis?

a) once a week

b) twice a week

c) once a day

d) once a month

9. Who makes the final determination that a prosthesis is damaged or ill fitting?

a) the nursing assistant

b) the doctor or therapist

c) the client

d) the nurse

10. Clients can use tools and adaptive equipment for:

a) IADLs.

b) ADLs.

c) independence.



1. The nurse asks you to get Emily’s vital signs. You find Emily in the activity room playing bingo. You should:

a) get her vital signs later so you do not disturb the game.

b) after getting Emily’s permission, take her to a private room and obtain the vital signs.

c) take the vital signs in the activity room while Emily continues to play.

d) tell the nurse that you will get the vital signs after bingo is done.

2. An axillary temperature is taken by placing the thermometer:

a) under the client’s tongue.

b) on the client’s forehead.

c) into the client’s ear canal.

d) under the client’s arm.

3. Claudia is an older client with dementia who is not feeling well today. The safest way to obtain Claudia’s temperature is by using a(n):

a) temporal artery scanner.

b) rectal thermometer.

c) oral thermometer.

d) tympanic thermometer.

4. The normal range for an adult’s heart rate is:

a) 60–75 beats per minute.

b) 50–80 beats per minute.

c) 60–100 beats per minute.

d) 70–120 beats per minute.

5. Which blood pressure is NOT within the normal limits for an adult?

a) 108/72

b) 122/84

c) 118/76

d) 100/80

6. A slow respiratory rate may be caused by:

a) a respiratory infection.

b) pain or discomfort.

c) an imbalance of the body’s pH.

d) illegal drug use.

7. A respiratory rate that is greater than 20 breaths per minute is called:

a) tachypnea.

b) hypotension.

c) bradycardia.

d) tachycardia.

8. You have taken Karl’s blood pressure with an electronic arm cuff. The results are not within the normal range. The FIRST thing you should do is:

a) report the blood pressure reading to the nurse.

b) retake the blood pressure immediately.

c) wait 5 minutes and then retake the blood pressure.

d) document the blood pressure in the client’s chart.

9. You need to obtain Esther’s temperature this morning. You find her eating breakfast in her room. Before taking her temperature, you should wait:

a) about 60 seconds.

b) 15–20 minutes.

c) 3–5 minutes.

d) half an hour.

10. You have taken Clara’s vital signs and weight this morning when she had her bath. Her temperature orally is 98.2°F, pulse is 56 beats per minute, respirations are 18 per minute, and blood pressure is 112/68. Which measurement is outside of the normal limits?

a) blood pressure

b) temperature

c) respirations

d) pulse

11. A client living in a nursing home typically has his weight taken:

a) once a week.

b) monthly.

c) each day.

d) twice a month.


1. A partial bed bath includes washing the following areas of the body:

a) face, hands, arms, and underarms.

b) underarms, under breasts, and under abdominal folds.

c) face, hands, and the peri-‐area.

d) face, hands, under skinfolds, and the peri-‐area.

2. When assisting a client with a shower, you should ensure the proper water temperature by:

a) asking the client to touch the water with her hand to verify if the water temperature is comfortable.

b) using a bath thermometer to check the water temperature before allowing the client into the shower.

c) testing the temperature on your hand to see if it is as hot as you like your shower.


3. While shampooing the client’s hair in the tub, you should ask the client to:

a) tip her head forward.

b) tip her head backward.

c) hold a washcloth over her eyes.

d) close her eyes and breathe through her nose.

4. David is an older client with dementia. You need to bathe him this morning, but he refuses. You should:

a) ask him why he doesn’t want to bathe, and then attempt later.

b) tell him that he needs to get into the tub right away, as that is the schedule.

c) take him to the tub room and start undressing him.

d) ask the nurse to bathe him.

5. You see a red, rashy area with white exudate under a client’s breast. You should:

a) cleanse the area with soap and water, and then change gloves and hand sanitize after washing the area.

b) report your findings to the nurse.

c) use a new set of washcloths and towels for the rest of the bath.


6. A client’s routine partial bed bath is typically completed:

a) weekly.

b) twice daily.

c) once per day.

d) upon request only.

7. A hospital client is typically given a shower:

a) on an as-‐needed basis.

b) never.

c) once per day.

d) upon request only.

8. Bathing offers the nursing assistant a unique opportunity to check the client’s:

a) hair.

b) fingernails.

c) skin.

d) toenails.

9. If a client becomes angry or agitated when bathing, you should:

a) tell him to calm down.

b) try to comfort the client.

c) yell for help.


10. If your male client is not circumcised, you should:

a) not wash this area; it is the nurse’s responsibility.

b) pull the foreskin back and wash.

c) ask the client to pull back the foreskin while you wash.

d) not wash this area; it is not required.


1. Michael is a hospital patient recovering from a car accident. He has an IV in his right hand. You need to dress Michael in a clean hospital gown. You should:

a) feed the IV bag and tubing through the right sleeve, followed by his right arm.

b) feed the IV bag and tubing through the left sleeve, followed by his left arm.

c) put his right arm through the right sleeve, followed by the IV bag and tubing.

d) have the nurse disconnect the IV tubing while you dress Michael.

2. When providing oral care for a client with natural teeth, you should:

a) hold the toothbrush at a 90-‐degree angle to the gums.

b) hold the toothbrush at a 45-‐degree angle to the gums.

c) brush the chewing surfaces of the teeth first.

d) brush the client’s tongue first.

3. You are assigned to take care of Elisabeth, an older client with dementia. She refuses to allow you to brush her teeth this morning. You should:

a) offer her a small amount of mouthwash instead of brushing.

b) inform the nurse that you are unable to provide oral care.

c) not provide oral care, since she has the right to refuse.

d) use a premoistened oral swab to provide oral care.

4. The nursing assistant should trim a client’s fingernails:

a) straight across to avoid hangnails.

b) only on the client’s bath day.

c) along the finger’s natural curve.

d) after applying lotion to the client’s hand.

5. Providing fingernail and hand care for a client helps to:

a) prevent nails from cracking.

b) maintain self-‐esteem.

c) prevent the client from scratching herself.


6. When assisting a client with foot care, allow the feet to soak:

a) 2–5 minutes.

b) 8–10 minutes.

c) 15–20 minutes.

d) 20–30 minutes.

7. Alva is a client recovering from a stroke. She has right-‐sided weakness and needs your assistance with dressing. You should remove her pajama top:

a) from her left arm first, and then from her right arm.

b) from her right arm first while supporting the elbow.

c) by removing both pajama sleeves at the same time.

d) from her right arm first, and then over the head and left arm.

8. The nursing assistant can clean hearing aids by using:

a) a toothpick.

b) an alcohol wipe.

c) a cotton-‐tipped swab.


9. A client who is taking blood thinners should be shaved:

a) by the nurse only.

b) using a disposable straight razor.

c) using an electric razor.

d) only if the family requests it.

10. Mouthwash should be offered to the alert and oriented client:

a) before providing oral care.

b) after providing oral care.

c) either a or b.

d) as a replacement for brushing.


1. Your client needs to increase her intake of vitamin B. The foods that would best help her accomplish this include:

a) potatoes and cereals.

b) almonds and spinach.

c) cottage cheese and milk.

d) fish and chicken.

2. A client might need a pureed diet because he:

a) has use of only his right hand.

b) chokes easily on his coffee and juice.

c) can no longer wear his dentures.

d) is missing one of his molars.

3. Your client is on a gluten-‐free diet. The item(s) that you would question on her meal tray before giving it to her is/are:

a) yogurt.

b) almonds.

c) beans.

d) a bagel.

4. Your client has undergone knee repair surgery and has just returned to the medical-‐surgical floor where you work. He is complaining of nausea and asks you for some ginger ale and crackers. Before you can give these to him, he would have to:

a) have bowel sounds.

b) sit upright for 30 minutes.

c) tolerate chicken broth.

d) ambulate 30 feet.

5. You think your client may be dehydrated because she:

a) keeps asking to use the toilet every 2 hours.

b) acts confused when normally she is alert and oriented.

c) had two bowel movements today.

d) complains of not sleeping well at night.

6. After feeding your client, you should keep the head of the bed:

a) in the lowest position.

b) upright.

c) flat.

d) in none of the above positions.

7. You have no soapy washcloth to wash your dependent client’s hands with before he eats. You should:

a) make sure that he does not touch his tray.

b) use his roommate’s soapy washcloth.

c) offer hand sanitizer to the client.

d) not wash his hands since he cannot feed himself.

8. Your client ate one half of his lunch. You would document that as:

a) 100%

b) 25%

c) 75%

d) 50%

9. After your client has finished her breakfast, you should offer her:

a) the restroom.

b) activities.

c) church services.

d) nail care.

10. The human body is made up of mostly:

a) vitamins.

b) water.

c) bones.

d) muscles.


1. A catheter that is inserted into the bladder through an opening in the abdomen is a called a(n):

a) intermittent catheter.

b) indwelling catheter.

c) suprapubic catheter.

d) urostomy.

2. Sharon is a client who is in the hospital for surgery. She has an indwelling catheter in place. To decrease the risk of pulling or tugging on the catheter, you should:

a) secure the catheter with a catheter holder attached to her thigh.

b) hang the urinary collection bag on the bed frame.

c) lay the collection bag on the bed while Sharon sleeps.

d) change the collection bag to a leg bag while Sharon is in bed.

3. A client in a wheelchair should have her urinary collection bag:

a) hung on the back of the wheelchair.

b) hung from the bars under the wheelchair seat.

c) disconnected from the catheter.

d) changed to a leg bag.

4. To accurately measure urinary output, the graduate should be:

a) placed on a barrier on the overbed table.

b) placed on a barrier on the bathroom countertop.

c) held up to the nursing assistant’s eye level.

d) emptied into a commode hat.

5. Maria is a client with end-‐stage renal failure that requires her to go to dialysis three times a week. She is often tired and uncomfortable when she returns to the nursing home. You can BEST help Maria by:

a) providing a quiet environment.

b) giving her an over-‐the-‐counter pain medication.

c) offering her a cup of herbal tea.

d) applying an ice pack to her back.

6. The nurse asks you to obtain a stool specimen from one of your clients. The stool sample may be taken from a:

a) commode hat placed in the front of the commode.

b) traditional or fracture bed pan.

c) commode hat placed in the back of the commode.

d) both b and c.

7. When changing a colostomy appliance, the nursing assistant should cut the inner circle of the wafer:

a) the same size as the stoma.

b) 1/4 inch smaller than the stoma.

c) 1/4 inch larger than the stoma.

d) 1/2 inch larger than the stoma.

8. A fracture pan should be placed under the client:

a) with the shallow part of the pan toward the head of the bed.

b) with the deepest part of the pan toward the head of the bed.

c) so that it looks like the client is sitting on a toilet seat.

d) while the client is in Fowler’s position.

9. You are toileting Samuel and notice that his stools are black and tarry. He says that they are always like that, but you don’t remember having seen this when you took care of him before. You should:

a) flush the toilet, since this is normal for him.

b) ask another nursing assistant if this is normal.

c) alert the nurse immediately so she can assess the stool.

d) obtain a stool specimen to check for occult blood.

10. A client who is able to use a urinal independently should keep it:

a) on the overbed table .

b) on the side rail.

c) in the bathroom.

d) in the bedside table.


1. A stool sample should be taken from:

a) any part of the stool; it does not matter.

b) the middle of the stool.

c) the ends of the stool.

d) both b and c.

2. Before leaving the client’s room, a urine or stool sample should be placed in:

a) a plastic bag.

b) a clean vinyl glove.

c) a biohazard bag.


3. Information indicated on the urine and stool sample container includes:

a) the client’s name, date of birth, identification number, and time collected.

b) the client’s name, date of birth, and the date and time of the specimen collection.

c) the client’s room number, maiden name, and social security number.

d) the client’s name, room number, identification number, and admission date.

4. The nurse has asked you to obtain a stool sample for occult blood. How many different areas of the stool should be obtained for the Hemoccult slide?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

5. Collection equipment to be used for collecting a stool specimen includes:

a) a new commode hat.

b) a new bedpan.

c) neither; the sample must be obtained in a sterile manner.

d) either a or b.

6. When clients become ill, urine and stool samples are collected to get a better idea of:

a) the client’s blood count.

b) what is causing the client’s illness.

c) the client’s blood type.


7. Remember to always wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when:

a) collecting fecal and urine samples.

b) feeding the client.

c) ambulating the client.

d) performing range-‐of-‐motion exercises.

8. The nursing assistant may collect:

a) stool samples.

b) blood samples.

c) urine samples.

d) both a and c.

9. Assembling all of the supplies before you begin to collect a sample will:

a) ensure fast collection of the sample.

b) save time during the documentation process.

c) ensure that the sample is not contaminated.

d) ensure the client’s right to privacy.

10. The most common reason to collect a urine specimen is to test for:

a) infection.

b) cancer.

c) glaucoma.

d) arthritis.


1. An example of an acute condition is:

a) smallpox.

b) emphysema.

c) osteoarthritis.

d) diabetes.

2. The client MOST likely to need a high concentration of supplementary oxygen would be a person with:

a) emphysema.

b) lung cancer.

c) COPD.

d) an anaphylactic reaction.

3. A client with a chronic condition is likely to have his or her oxygen at:

a) 6–8 liters per minute.

b) 1–6 liters per minute.

c) 8–10 liters per minute.

d) 10–14 liters per minute.

4. Clio is a client with COPD. Her care plan states that she has oxygen ordered at 2 liters per minute. You find Clio in her room with her oxygen concentrator set at 3 liters per minute. She tells you that she turned it up this morning because she was short of breath from walking in her room. You should:

a) turn the oxygen back down to 2 liters per minute immediately.

b) let Clio rest for a while, and then change the oxygen to 2 liters per minute.

c) report Clio’s shortness of breath and oxygen rate to the nurse right away.

d) leave the oxygen at 3 liters per minute, since Clio is alert and oriented.

5. The nursing assistant’s responsibilities while caring for a client on oxygen therapy include:

a) checking skin integrity behind the ears.

b) comparing the oxygen flow rate to the client’s care plan.

c) ensuring that the client has enough oxygen for activities.


6. A device that delivers only a puff of oxygen with each breath is called a:

a) conserving regulator.

b) conventional regulator.

c) face mask.

d) wall-‐mounted system.

7. How far from the wall should a client’s concentrator be kept?

a) at least 2 inches

b) at least 6 inches

c) at least 12 inches

d) about 5 feet

8. A nasal cannula should be inserted into the nares:

a) with the prongs curved away from the client.

b) with the prongs curved toward the client.

c) before turning the oxygen on and checking the flow rate.

d) after bringing the sliding connector up toward the chin.

9. Leanna is a client who is on oxygen at 4 liters per minute. When you enter her room, you notice that the humidification bottle is not bubbling. This means that:

a) the oxygen is not flowing properly.

b) Leanna has taken the nasal cannula out of her nose.

c) the oxygen is flowing at the correct rate.

d) the oxygen rate needs to be turned down.

10. To ensure that the oxygen concentrator is working properly, the filter should be:

a) replaced weekly by the oxygen supplier.

b) removed daily and washed with soap and water.

c) checked daily by the nurse and the respiratory therapist.

d) rinsed with tap water and dried when it becomes dirty.


1. Sequential stockings are used to:

a) prevent infections.

b) prevent blood clots.

c) encourage independence.

d) protect privacy.

2. A clear-‐liquid diet is started after a postsurgical client is able to:

a) walk.

b) urinate.

c) pass gas.

d) state that he is not nauseous.

3. Postsurgical activity is important because it reduces the risk of:

a) bowel obstructions.

b) pneumonia.

c) atelectasis.


4. Ambulatory surgery is designed for:

a) orthopedic surgeries.

b) cardiac surgeries.

c) minor surgeries.

d) complex surgeries.

5. An example of a medical client is someone who has had a:

a) stroke.

b) hip replacement.

c) spleen removal.

d) heart valve replacement.

6. Walking can significantly decrease the risk of:

a) postsurgical complications.

b) bowel movements.

c) diarrhea.

d) nausea and vomiting.

7. Clients who have had orthopedic surgery are likely to be assigned a:

a) lengthy NPO status.

b) weight-‐bearing status.

c) speech therapist.

d) one-‐on-‐one nursing assistant.

8. In acute care, you more than likely will be asked to take vital signs every:

a) day.

b) shift.

c) 4 hours.

d) 12 hours.

9. Splinting is the intervention used to decrease pain during:

a) toileting immediately following surgery.

b) walking the length of the hallway.

c) coughing and deep breathing exercises.

d) repositioning in bed.

10. To care for the client in acute care, you must:

a) have at least 120 hours of work experience.

b) have taken an acute care nursing assistant course.

c) have experience in an ambulatory surgery setting.

d) be able to identify critical situations promptly.


1. You are caring for Alphonso, a 78-‐year-‐old man with receptive aphasia. His care plan states that he uses a picture book to communicate with staff. When you are bathing him this morning, he becomes upset and tearful. You use the picture book but are unable to determine what Alphonso needs. You should:

a) ask the nurse to help you find out what he needs.

b) ask a family member to speak with him.

c) use short, direct sentences to continue providing care.

d) speak in a lower tone of voice while giving care.

2. You are caring for Bernice, an older adult client with hearing loss. Tonight she seems to be having a more difficult time understanding you. What should you do FIRST?

a) Report this change to the nurse.

b) Find a picture book for the client.

c) Ensure Bernice has her hearing aids in.

d) Change the batteries in the hearing aid.

3. Stella is a 10-‐year-‐old girl with complete hearing loss due to an infection she had as an infant. This is an example of a(n):

a) emotional deficit.

b) acquired communication disorder.


d) congenital communication disorder.

4. You are caring for an older adult client who wears a hearing aid in his left ear and is deaf in his right ear. When caring for him, you should:

a) raise your voice when you speak into his right ear.

b) turn the volume on the hearing aid all the way up.

c) use a picture board for communication.

d) ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

5. Personal computers that translate a typed phrase into “speech” would BEST help a client with:

a) receptive aphasia.

b) autism.

c) hearing loss.

d) expressive aphasia.

6. When caring for a client with autism, it is important to:

a) maintain a consistent daily routine.

b) engage the client in conversation and activities.

c) use nonverbal gestures to communicate with the client.

d) sit down next to the client and maintain eye contact.

7. A white board and dry-‐erase marker are tools that would help a client with:

a) autism.

b) post-‐traumatic stress.


d) impaired vision.

8. An emotional communication deficit occurs when:

a) a caregiver doesn’t adapt her care to the client.

b) the client doesn’t understand nonverbal messages.

c) social interaction and communication are impaired.

d) both b and c happen.

9. Receptive aphasia is the inability to:

a) understand spoken language.

b) understand written messages.

c) hear the spoken word.

d) speak clearly to others.

10. Mark is a 40-‐year-‐old client who suffers from post-‐traumatic stress disorder. He experiences nightmares, doesn’t engage in conversation with his caregivers, and rarely makes eye contact. This is an example of a(n):

a) neurological disorder.

b) emotional deficit.


d) speech impairment.


1. Alopecia is a loss of:

a) appetite.

b) hair.

c) self-‐esteem.

d) weight.

2. Cancer is spread via what system(s)?

a) blood

b) lymph

c) blood and lymph


3. Which of these lifestyle choices greatly increases the risk of developing cancer?

a) high BMI

b) low BMI

c) active lifestyle

d) genetic predisposition

4. Stage 1 cancer is:

a) small in size or slow growing.

b) a large tumor confined to one area.

c) a large tumor that has spread to a different area of the body.


5. A good way to increase caloric intake for a client receiving cancer treatments is to offer:

a) fresh fruits and vegetables.

b) large portions of calorie-‐heavy foods like cream sauces and fatty meats.

c) ice cream, smoothies, and protein shakes.

d) Popsicles, fruit juice, and tea.

6. A biopsy is:

a) the removal of a small number of cells.

b) a type of cancer treatment.

c) the loss of hair.

d) a type of radiation.

7. Some cancers leave these in the client’s blood:

a) waste materials.

b) markers.

c) germs.

d) red blood cells.

8. An intervention used to remove a tumor is:

a) chemotherapy.

b) hydrotherapy.

c) surgery.

d) radiation.

9. Chemotherapy is the use of drugs to kill:

a) the common cold.

b) the influenza virus.

c) cancer cells.


10. Side effects associated with cancer treatments include:

a) fatigue.

b) weight loss.

c) mouth sores.



1. The function of the body’s T cells is to:

a) carry oxygen to the cells of the body.

b) help blood to clot.

c) help the body fight off infections.

d) provide proteins needed for cell health.

2. The number of people in the United States currently infected with HIV is:

a) 60,000.

b) 100,000.

c) 500,000.

d) more than 1 million.

3. A symptom that a client is likely to have in the EARLY stages of an HIV infection would be:

a) yeast infections.

b) visual disturbances.

c) Karposi’s sarcoma.

d) dementia.

4. The CDC encourages healthcare providers to make HIV testing a part of care for:

a) clients in high-‐risk categories only.

b) clients in healthcare professions only.

c) all clients 13–64 years old.

d) only high-‐risk clients 13–64 years old.

5. The clinic where you work discovers that one of its employees has tested positive for HIV. The clinic is able to legally share this information with:

a) the employee’s clients.

b) the physicians.

c) the employee’s doctor.

d) no one.

6. The incidence of HIV infection in healthcare workers is low because:

a) HIV testing is standard for all clients.

b) standard precautions are routinely used.

c) facilities have post-‐exposure procedures.

d) healthcare workers are required to be HIV-‐negative.

7. The greatest risk factor for contracting the HIV infection is:

a) unprotected sex between men.

b) drug use with contaminated needles.

c) unprotected sex between heterosexual couples.

d) infected blood coming into contact with broken skin.

8. Anna is a 28-‐year-‐old home health client whom you assist once a week. She is positive for HIV. Today she tells you that her infection has progressed to AIDS. This means she likely has how much time left to live?

a) 6 months

b) 1 year

c) 2–3 years

d) 5–7 years

9. You are caring for Luis, a client admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. He tells you that he is positive for HIV. This was not a part of the report you received from the nurse. You should:

a) check his medical record for more information.

b) report Luis’s statements to the nurse.

c) ask his family if this new information is true.

d) tell your coworkers to wear isolation gowns.

10. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is effectively killed by:

a) using personal protective equipment (PPE).

b) hand washing and hand sanitizing.

c) washing hard surfaces with bleach.

d) both b and c.


1. A client who is no longer able to speak, perform any ADLs, or purposefully move is in this stage of Alzheimer’s dementia:

a) mild or early stage.

b) moderate or middle stage.

c) severe or late stage.

d) sundowning.

2. The most common type of dementia is:

a) vascular.

b) AIDS.

c) Alzheimer’s.

d) Parkinson’s.

3. A good way to deter pocketing food in the cheeks during meal time is to:

a) use “sippy” cups.

b) use rubber-‐tipped spoons.

c) offer a drink in between each bite.

d) offer finger foods.

4. What type of therapy helps a client feel a sense of purpose and boosts self-‐esteem by bringing back a sense of meaning?

a) reminiscence

b) activity

c) validation


5. The number one risk factor for developing dementia is:

a) age.

b) genetics.

c) history of depression.

d) smoking.

6. Respite care can be offered in the form of:

a) adult day care.

b) assisted living.

c) a home health aide.


7. Symptoms of caregiver stress that you need to recognize in family members, coworkers, and yourself include:

a) anxiety and depression.

b) respite care.

c) regular doctor visits.

d) expression of feelings.

8. In some facilities, clients with excessive or violent dementia symptoms reside in:

a) locked units.

b) courtyards.

c) integrated units.

d) step-‐down units.

9. A common way to keep wandering clients safe is by using a(n):

a) restraint.

b) microchip.

c) GPS.

d) alarm system.

10. You are assigned to bathe Cathleen, a client with dementia who is afraid of the water. You should:

a) wash the client’s hair at the end of the bath.

b) offer a complete bed bath instead of a tub bath.

c) be calm and supportive.



1. You are performing a bed bath for a client who has just passed away. When you roll him onto his side, you hear a sigh. This is due to:

a) a buildup of saliva in the mouth.

b) air escaping the lungs.

c) air leaving the circulatory system.

d) Cheyne-‐Stokes breathing.

2. You are caring for a client who is in the last stages of dying. Today when you speak to him, he doesn’t respond. You should:

a) continue to talk to him in a normal tone of voice.

b) raise your voice until he responds to you.

c) call the family to update them of this change.

d) take out his hearing aids and give them to his family.

3. You have noticed that your client has been breathing very rapidly and shallowly, followed by slow, deep breaths. The client is showing signs of:

a) a “death rattle.”

b) mottling.

c) Cheyne-‐Stokes breathing.

d) low blood pressure.

4. Nervous system changes that take place during the dying process include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) twitching movements.

b) decreased alertness.

c) hallucinations.

d) loss of hearing.

5. After a client dies, the nurse’s responsibilities include:

a) listening for a heartbeat and updating the doctor.

b) pronouncing the time of death.

c) asking the family to call their funeral director.

d) tidying up the client’s room.

6. Mottling is most likely to appear on the client’s:

a) chest.

b) abdomen.

c) legs and feet.

d) face.

7. You are caring for Dorian, a 58-‐year-‐old client who is dying of prostate cancer. Today when you are assisting Dorian with his breakfast, he coughs with each bite and shakes his head. You should:

a) continue to offer him his breakfast.

b) stop, ensure that he is safe, and then update the nurse.

c) give him only his fluids for the rest of the day.

d) tell him that he won’t get better unless he eats something.

8. You should provide oral care to a client who is dying:

a) each time you reposition her.

b) two or three times a day.

c) every 15 minutes.

d) only when the client requests.

9. Edna is an older adult client who is dying of respiratory disease. She tells you that she is Catholic and would like to have a priest come visit her. The appropriate action to take is:

a) call the family and ask which church they attend.

b) look in Edna’s chart for more information.

c) tell your facility’s social worker right away.

d) update the nurse with Edna’s request.

10. You are caring for Faith, an older adult client who is dying of kidney failure. Her family has been keeping a vigil at the bedside. Tonight they seem especially upset and start shouting at each other while still in Faith’s room. After making sure Faith is safe, the FIRST thing you should do is:

a) ask the family members to leave the facility.

b) dial 911 and report an emergency.

c) encourage the family to take a break.

d) ask the nurse to assign them a counselor.


1. An indication of a potentially life-‐threatening complication of using diuretics could be:

a) seeing “halos” around objects.

b) blood in the urine.

c) low blood sugar.

d) high blood pressure.

2. The nursing assistant’s responsibility in regard to medications includes:

a) delivering the medication to the client.

b) making sure the client actually swallows the medication.

c) identifying side effects of medications and reporting those to the nurse.


3. Signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction include:

a) bleeding and confusion.

b) an unsafe rise in blood pressure and pulse.

c) shock, shortness of breath, wheezing, and facial and airway swelling.

d) dizziness, lack of appetite, and nausea.

4. A complication of taking laxatives on a regular basis may be:

a) developing hemorrhoids.

b) bloody stools.

c) dependency on the laxative.

d) low potassium levels.

5. Addiction may result from the use of:

a) acetaminophen.

b) a narcotic analgesic.

c) an NSAID.


6. Medications that relieve constipation are commonly called:

a) laxatives.

b) diuretics.

c) analgesics.

d) beta blockers.

7. The best way to treat occasional constipation is to:

a) use laxatives.

b) drink prune juice.

c) make lifestyle changes.

d) do none of the above.

8. Antibiotics are medications that are used to treat:

a) parasitic infections.

b) fungal infections.

c) bacterial infections.


9. Bronchodilators are commonly used to treat clients with:

a) asthma.

b) the common cold.

c) HIV.

d) digestive problems.

10. What diagnosis is commonly referred to as the “silent killer”?

a) hypotension

b) myocardial infarction

c) cerebrovascular accident

d) hypertension

eng26313 Test Bank Chapter 1...

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