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Code

0 UMULATIVE TEST

-1

(CT-

1)

JEE ADVANCED PATTERN)

TARGET : JEE MAIN+ADVANCED) 2016

COURSE : JP, JF, JR

®

Revision Plan-2 | PAPER-1

Date : 10-04-2016 Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

GENERAL

1. The sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are instructed to do so.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and the right hand top corner ofthe back cover of this booklet.

3. Use the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the question.

4. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.

5. Write your Name and Roll Number in the space provided on the below cover.

QUESTION PAPER FORMAT AND MARKING SCHEME :

6. The question paper has three parts : Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry. Each part has two sections.

7. Carefully read the instructions given at the beginning of each section.

8. Section 1 contains 15 multiple Choice question with one or more than one correct option.

Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

9. Section 2 contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (bothinclusive).

Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

10. Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.

11. The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.

12. Don not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.

13. Write your name, roll number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the space provided

for this purpose on the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the appropriatebubble under each digit of your roll number.

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

14. Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.

15. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

16. Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.

17. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here :

18. There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble.

19. The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened and not darkenedbubbles are evaluated.

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M A T H E M A T I C S

MATHEMATICS

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PART : I MATHEMATICS

SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 45)

" This section contains FIFTEEN questionsEach question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of thesefour option(s) is(are) correct

For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS

Marking scheme :+3 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

–1 In all other cases

1. The value of

2r 15

–1cot

r 1 2 8

!"#

$

% &' (' () *

is equal to

(A) cot –1

1

2

% &' () *

(B) tan –1

2 (C) cot –1

1

4

% &' () *

(D) tan –1

4

2. Consider the equation sin

–1 172

x –

6 x 2"

% &

' () * + cos –1

k = 2

+

, then

(A) the largest value of k for which equation has 2 distinct solution is 1

(B) the equation must have real roots if k , 1

– ,12

% &' () *

(C) the equation must have real roots if k , 1

–1,2

% &' () *

(D) the equation has unique solution if k = – 1

2


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3. The values of parameter 'a' for which the point of minimum of the function f(x) = 1 + a2x – x3

satisfies the inequality2

2

x x 20

x 5x 6

" "-

" "are

(A) ( 2 3,3 3 ) (B) ( 3 3, 2 3. . ) (C) ( 2 3,3 3. ) (D) ( 3 3,2 3. )

4. Let f(x) = cot –1

(sgn(x)) + sin –1

(x –

{x}) which of the following is(are) CORRECT ?

(A) Domain of f(x) is [ –1, 2)

(B) f(x) is an even function / [ –1, 1].

(C) f(x) is bounded

(D) Number of solution of the equation f(x) =2

+ is zero.

[Note: {y} and sgn (y) denotes fractional part of y and signum of y respectively.]

5. Let f:R 0 [1, !) be a quadratic surjective function such that f(2 + x) = f(2 –x) and f(1) = 2. If

g : ( –!1 !n2) 0 [1, 5) is given by g (!nx) = f(x) then which of the following is(are) CORRECT ?

(A) The value of f(3) is equal to 2

(B) g –1

(x) = !n 3 42 – x – 1

(C) g –1

(x) = !n 3 42 x – 1"

(D)The sum of values of x satisfying the equation f(x) = 5 is 4.


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6. Let fn(x) = (sin x)1/n

+ (cos x)1/n

, x , R, n , N, then

(A) f2(x) > 1 for all x , 3 42k , 4k 12

+% &+ "' (

) *,k, 5 (B) f2(x) = 1 for x = 2k+, k, 5

(C) f2(x) >f3(x) for all x , 3 42k , 4k 12

++ "

% &' () *

,k, 5 (D) f3(x)

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9. f : R 0 R is one-one, onto and differentiable function and graph of y = f(x) is symmetric about the

point (4, 0) then :

(A) f –1

(2010) + f –1

( –2010) = 8

(B)2018

–2010

f(x)> dx = 0

(C) if f'( –

100) > 0 then roots of x2 –

f'(10)x –

f'(10) = 0 may be non-real

(D) if f'(10) = 20, then f'( –2) = 20

10. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) CORRECT ?

(A) If f:R 0 R and g:R0R be function such that g(x) is bijective and fog (x) is injective then g must

be injective.

(B) Every function can be expressed as sum of two functions one of which is even and other is

odd.

(C) If f(x) and g(x) are inverse of each other then fog(x) = gof(x)

(D) If g(x) is periodic and f(x) is non-periodic then fog(x) must be periodic

11. Consider the function 3 4 3 4 3 42 2

1 1f x sec x cosec x. .$ " then

(A) Range of f(x) is2 25

,8 4

? @+ +A BA BC D

(B) Range of f(x) is2 25

,4 4

? @+ +A BA BC D

(C) Domain of f(x) is R – ( –1, 1) (D) f(x) is bijective


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12. Which of the following set of values of x satisfy the inequality x2 – 4x > cot

–1x

(A) ( –1, 5) (B) (0, 4) (C) ( –!, –1) (D) 3 45, !

13. If co-domain is R, then which of the following functions is a surjective (onto) function ?

(A) f(x) = !n|!n(x –[x])|, (where [.] denotes the G.I.F.)

(B) f(x) = x + cos (+[x]), (where [.] denotes the G.I.F.)

(C) f(x) = tan –1

x – 2

x

1 x"

(D) f(x) =2

x

x – 1

14. If a > b > c > 0 then find the value of cot –1

( *

&')

%

.

"

ba

1ab+ cot

–1 (

*

&')

%

.

"

cb

1bc + cot

–1 ( *

&')

%

.

"

ac

1ca

(A) 0 (B) +

(C) –+ (D) Independent on values of a,b,c

15. The range of the function f(x) = 2 24 x x 1. " . contains the set

(A) [0, 4] (B) [ 3, 6 ] (C) 2, 3? @C D (D) 2, 6? @C D


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This section contains FIVE questionsThe answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusiveFor each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

Marking scheme :+3 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened0 If none of the bubbles is darkened


16. The number of integers belonging to the interval [ –3, 30] but not belonging to the range of the

function f(x) = x{x} –x[ –x], x , R, is E. Find the value of E – 5.(where [.] and {.} denote the greatest integer function and fractional part respectively)

17. Two functions f(x) and g(x) are defined as f(x) = log3 2x – 2

x – 10 x 24" and g(x) = cos

–1

x – 2

3

% &' () *

,

then find the number of even integers for which (f(x) + g(x)) is defined.

18. Let f(x) = 1 + sinx and an =

n n

f f

4 4

% & % &+ +% & % &" .' ( ' (' ( ' (

) * ) *) * ) *

, bn =

n n

f f

4 4

% & % &+ +% & % &. .' ( ' (' ( ' (

) * ) *) * ) *

then

a10 + Ea4 = a7.a3 and b10 – Eb4 = a7.b3 both holds simultaneously. If E is equal to 2 –k

. Then find thevalue of k.

19. Suppose f (x) = (x + 1)2 for x F . 1. If g

(x) is the function whose graph is the reflection of the graph

of f (x) with respect to the line y = x, then gG(0.25) equals:

20. The number of solution(s) of the equation 2sin –1

2

2x

1 x

% &' (

") * – +x3 = 0 is/are


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PHYSICS

P H Y S I C S


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PART - II : PHYSICS


" This section contains FIFTEEN questions

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these

four option(s) is(are) correct


Marking scheme :

+3 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened

0 If none of the bubbles is darkened


21. Four point masses each of mass m are placed on vertices of a regular tetrahedron. Distance

between any two masses is r.

(A) Gravitation field at centre is zero

(B) Gravitation potential at centre is4Gm

r

!

(C) Gravitation potential energy of system is26Gm

r

!

(D) Gravitation force on one of the point mass is2

2

6Gm

r


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22. An infinite long line charge of charge per unit length " (uniform distribution) is passing through one

of the edge of a cube. Length of edge of the cube is !. (see figure.)

"

H G

C

F

D

A B

E

(A) Total flux linked with cube is0

2

"$

! (B) Total flux linked with BADC is

08

"$

!

(C) Total flux linked with BCGF is08

"$!

(D) Total flux linked with ABFE is zero

23. Select the incorrect statements from following.

(A) conversing lens can not form real image of virtual object

(B) diverging mirror can not form real image of real object

(C) conversing mirror can not form real image of virtual object

(D) diverging lens can not form real image of virtual object


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24. In a liquid, a glass prism is immersed. The curves showing the refractive index n as a function of

wavelength " for glass and liquid are as given in the figure. When white light is incident on the

prism parallel to the base then :

Liquid

Glass

yellow

(A) Blue ray is deviated towards vertex

(B) Red ray is deviated towards base

(C) Yellow ray travels without deviation

(D) there is no dispersion

25. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the

magnitude of escape velocity from the earth surface. Which of the following Options is/are correct :

(assume radius of the earth R = 6400 km, g at the earth surface is 10ms –2, neglect the air

resistance)

(A) Height of the satellite above the earth surface is 6400 km

(B) If satellite is suddenly stopped in its orbit and allowed to fall freely into the earth. Then it will hit

the earth surface with 8 km/s.

(C) If satellite is suddenly stopped in its orbit and allowed to fall freely into the earth. Then during its

fall total mechanical energy of satellite, in the gravitational field of the earth, remains constant.

(D) If satellite is suddenly stopped in its orbit and allowed to fall freely into the earth. At the given

instant its acceleration is 5 m/s2


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26. As shown in diagram there are two fixed uniformly charged concentric coplanar conducting ringshaving radius 'R' and 4R and charges '+Q' and ' –8Q' respectively. A charge particle of mass 'm' &charge ' –q' is projected along the axis of rings from point 'P' so that particle can just reach thecentre of rings (point 'O'). (Assume Qq > 0.)

+Q

–8Q

Vmin –q, m

P

R

4R 3R

O

(A) required minimum velocity is zero(B) speed of particle at the position ‘O’ will be non zero (C) particle perform oscillatory motion about ‘O’ (D) particle will not perform oscillatory motion about ‘O’

27. A long co-axial cable carries a uniform volume charge density % on inner cylinder and uniformsurface charge density & on outer cylinder. If radius of inner cylinder is ‘a’ and radius of outercylinder is ‘b’. It is found that this infinite cable is electrically neutral then which of the followingis/are correct.

(A)2

02ab

& %' (

(B)2

02ba

& %' (

(C) Electric field outside the cable increases linearly with radial distance(D) Electric field will be zero outside the cable


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28. A charge 'q' is placed on the diagonal AP of a cube at a distanceAP

3 from the point A. Choose

the correct options.

(A) the sum of electric flux passing through the surfaces ABCD and PQRS is0

q

3$

(B) the sum of electric flux passing through the surfaces ABCD and PQRS is0

q

8$

(C) the flux through both the surfaces ABCD and PQRS are same

(D) the flux through the surfaces ABCD is larger than the flux through surface PQRS.

29. A line charge of infinite length and uniform charge density " lies along the x-axis and let the

surface of zero potential passes through point 'A' (0, 5, 12) m. Then select correct alternative/s.

Y

Z

+)

V = 0(0, 5, 12)

(A) The potential at point 'B' (2, 3, - 4)m is

0

13

2 5

" * +, -.$ / 0

!n

(B) The potential at point 'B' (2, 3, - 4)m is

0

2 13

3

" * +, -

.$ / 0

!n

(C) Ratio of electric field at point 'B' to electric field at point 'A' is13

5

(D) Ratio of electric field at point 'B' to electric field at point 'A' is5

13


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30. A point charge q is placed at P(0,0,a). Then select correct alternative/s.

P(0, 0, a)

B(a, 0, 0)

X

C(a, a, 0)

y

A(0, a, 0)O

Z

(A)0

q

24$ > 1OAB >

0

q

48$ (B) 1OAC =

048$q

(C) 1ABC < 1ABO (D) 1OAC < 1OBC

31. Three identical plates of area A are arranged as shown. A charge + Q is given to plate-2. Then

select correct alternative/s.

(1) (2) (3)

d 2d

(A) charge + 2Q/3 appears on left surface of plate-2

(B) charge – 2 Q/3 appears on inner surface of plate-1

(C) charge – Q/3 appears on inner surface of plate-3

(D) charge on right surface of plate 2 is Q/3


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32. An artificial satellite of mass m is moving in a circular orbit at a height equal to the radius R of the

earth. Suddenly due to internal explosion the satellite breaks into two parts of equal masses. One

part of the satellite stops just after the explosion and then falls to the surface of the earth.

(Given: acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g )

R

(A) The increase in the mechanical energy of the system (satellite + earth) due to explosion will be4

mgR

(B) Increase in the mechanical energy of the system (satellite + earth) due to explosion will be3

4

mgR

(C) One part of the satellite (which was moving after explosion) is going to escape the gravitation

field of earth

(D) One part of the satellite (which was stationary after explosion) is going to collide on earth

surface with a velocity which is double of its orbital velocity in original circular orbital.

33. The lens in an overhead projector forms an image P' of a point P on a screen as shown. If the

screen is moved closer to the projector to keep the image on the screen in focus, then select

possible correct option/s :

(A) The lens is moved away from P keeping same principal axis.

(B) The lens is moved towards from P keeping same principal axis.

(C) The mirror is moved towards the lens keeping same orientation.

(D) The mirror is moved away from the lens keeping same orientation.


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34. Consider a refracting media of refractive index 22 ( kept in air and surrounded by two non

parallel surfaces, such that one surface is fixed and another surface is being moved with constant

angular velocity 3 = 2 rad/sec about point A in clockwise direction as shown in figure. Assume thatrefractive media bounded by nonparallel surfaces always remains isotropic and refractive index

always remains constant. A light ray falls on fixed surface at angle of incidence 45 °. Choose the

correct option(s)

45°

fixed 4

A

3

(A) Magnitude of the rate of change of angle of emergence from moving surface with respect to

time when 4 = 60° is 22 rad/sec(B) Magnitude of the rate of change of angle of emergence from moving surface with respect to

time when 4 = 60° is 32 rad/sec(C) Magnitude of the rate of change of angle of deviation with respect to time when 4 = 60°

is 2 3 2! rad/sec(D) The rate of change of angle of deviation with respect to time when 4 = 60° is negative.

35. A converging equiconvex thin lens forms real image of a particle as shown in case 5. If now lens iscut as shown in case 55 then select the correct alternative/alternatives :

(A) Image in case 55 will be at 240 cm from lens.(B) Image is real.

(C) Image in case 55 will be at the same location of case 5.(D) There will be two distinguished images.


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This section contains FIVE questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

Marking scheme :

+3 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened



36. Equipotential surfaces differing in potential by 1volt are drawn around a positive point charge. The

distance of the nearest surface differing in potential by 1V from the surface at 5V is 10cm. The

distance of the other surface differing by 1V from the 5V surface is 5x cm, calculate x.

37. A light ray parallel to the principal axis is incident (as shown in the figure) on a planoconvex lens

with radius of curvature of its curved part equal to 10 cm. Assuming that the refractive index of the

material of the lens is 4/3 and medium on both sides of the lens is air, the distance of the point from

the curved surface of lens where this ray meets the principal axis is26y

7cm then find value of y.


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38. In the figure shown points A and B are at distance r and 2r respectively from one end of uniformly

charged infinitely long wire having linear charge density ". If potential difference VA – V

B is

0

n(4x)16

".$

! , calculate x.

39. Mirror in the arrangement shown in figure is moving up with speed 8 cm/sec. Speed of final image

(in cm/sec) is 4x, calculate x. Object

40. A thin spherical soap bubble has surface tension S. It's surface is uniformly charged with charge

Q, it's volume is V. It is found that when Q2 = 16n.$0SV, the excess pressure inside the bubblebecomes zero. Find n.


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C H E M I S T R Y

CHEMISTRY


Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005 Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]

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PART - III : CHEMISTRY

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,

P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,

Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION –

1 : (Maximum Marks : 45)

" This section contains FIFTEEN questions

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these

four option(s) is(are) correct


Marking scheme :

+3 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened



41. A 100 mL solution consists of H2C2O4 and H2SO4 in 1 : 1 molar ratio. 25 mL of this solution

requires 30 mL of KOH which was prepared by adding 5.6 gm KOH in 500 mL of solution. If 50 mL

of the original solution is boiled then:

(A) Volume of CO2 gas liberated at STP is 67.2 mL

(B) Volume of CO2 gas liberated at STP is 22.4 mL

(C) Total volume of gases liberated at STP is 67.2 mL

(D) One of the liberated gas burns with blue flame.


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42. 0.2 gm of a solution of mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 and inert impurity was first titrated with HPh

and N/10 HCl, 17.5 mL of HCl was required at the end point. After it MeOH was added and 2.5 mL

of same HCl was again required for next end point.

(A) Percentage by weight of NaOH in the original mixture is 60

(B) Percentage by weight of impurity in the original mixture is 30

(C) Percentage by weight of NaOH in the original mixture is 30

(D) Percentage by weight of Na2CO3 in the original mixture is 60

43. A sample of 50% CuS by mass reacts with 50% HNO3 by mass according to the reaction, which

yields 320 g of 40% sulphur by mass with 40% yield.

3CuS + 8HNO3 !" 3Cu(NO3)2 + 3S + 2NO + 4H2O

(A) Mass of CuS taken in the sample is 1910 g.

(B) Mass of CuS taken in the sample is 955 g.

(C) Mass of HNO3 taken in the sample is 3360 g.

(D) Mass of HNO3 taken in the sample is 1680 g.

44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the change: CN NCO# #" ?

(A) Carbon is losing two electrons per atom.

(B) The oxidation state of carbon changes from +2 to +4.

(C) Oxidation state of nitrogen is not changing.

(D) Oxidation state of nitrogen changes from –3 to –1.


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45. A metal forms two oxides. The higher oxide contains 20% oxygen, while 4.29 g of the lower oxide

formed by reaction of metal and oxygen on reaction with oxygen when converted to higher oxide,

become 4.77 g. The approximate equivalent weight of metal in:

(A) lower oxide is 32 (B) lower oxide is 64.4

(C) higher oxide is 64.4 (D) higher oxide is 32

46. Which would decrease the pH of 25 mL of a 0.01 M solution of hydrochloric acid? The addition of

(A) magnesium metal (B) 25 mL 0.02 M HCl

(C) 25 mL 0.005 M HCl (D) 50 mL water

47. Which of the following processes will increase [OH –

] in NH4OH solution?

(A) Addition of HCl solution (B) Addition of water

(C) Addition of NH4Cl solution (D) Addition of solid NH4OH


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48. H2CO3 ionizes as :

H2CO3 H+ + HCO3

–

; K1 = 4.0 × 10 –6

HCO3 –

H+ + CO3

2 – ; K2 = 5.0 × 10

–11

The correct information(s) related with 0.5 M Na2CO3 solution is/are

(A) The degree of hydrolysis of Na2CO3 is 0.02

(B) pH of solution is 2.0.

(C) pOH of solution is 2.0

(D) [H2CO3] = 2.5 × 10 –9

M

49. A 2.5 g impure sample containing weak monoacidic base (Molecular weight = 45) is dissolved in

100 mL water and titrated with 0.5 – M HCl at 25°C. When 1/5th of the base was neutralized, the

pH was found to be 9 and at equivalent point, pH of solution is 4.5. Select the correct statement(s):

(log 2 = 0.3)

(A) Kb of base is less than 10 –6

.

(B) Concentration of salt at equivalent point is 0.25 M.

(C) Volume of HCl used at equivalent point is 100 mL.

(D) Mass percentage of base in given sample is 80%

50. Ionic conductance at infinite dilution of Al3+

and SO42 –

ions are 60 and 80 $ –1

cm2 eq

–1,

respectively. The correct detail(s) regarding Al2(SO4)3 is/are

(A) the molar conductance is 140 $ –1

cm2mol

–1

(B) the equivalent conductance is 140 $ –1

cm2eq

–1

(C) the molar conductance is 840 $ –1

cm2mol

–1

(D) the molar conductance is 23.33 $ –1

cm2mol

–1


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51. A lead storage cell is discharged which causes the H2SO4 electrolyte to change from a

concentration of 40% by weight (density = 1.260 g/mL) to 28%, by weight (density = 1.1 g/mL).

The original volume of electrolyte was 1 L. Identify the correct statement(s) :

(A) The overall cell reaction is : Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq) " 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)

(B) A total 2.0 moles of H2SO4 is reacted.

(C) The total charge released from anode of the cell is 1.93 × 105 coulomb.

(D) The mass of electrolytic solution has decreased.

52. EMF of the cell : Cd(s) | CdCl2.5H2O (saturated) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) is +0.70 V at 0°C and +0.60 V at

50°C. If H% & and S% & are temperature independent, then the correct information(s) regarding the

cell reaction is/are

(A) G% & = –115.8 kJ at 50°C

(B) G% & = –135.1 kJ at 0°C

(C) S% & = –386 J/K

(D) %Sº = –186 J/K


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53. Two litre solution of a buffer mixture containing 1.0 M-NaH2PO4 and 1.0 M-Na2HPO4 is placed in

two compartments (one litre in each) of an electrolytic cell. The platinum electrodes are inserted in

each compartment and 1.25 A current is passed for 965 min. Assuming electrolysis of only water

at each compartment, what will be pH in each compartment after passage of above charge? (pK a

for –42POH = 2.15, log 7 = 0.85)

(A) Anode : 3.00 (B) Cathode : 3.00

(C) Anode : 1.30 (D) Cathode : 1.30

54. Consider the cell : Ag(s), AgCl(s) | KCl (0.1 M) | Hg2Cl2(s), Hg(l). The cell potential

(A) increases on increasing concentration of Cl –

ions.

(B) decreases on increasing concentration of Cl –

ions.

(C) is independent of concentration of Cl –

ions.

(D) is independent of amounts of AgCl and Hg2Cl2.

55. A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of :

(A) NH4Cl and NaOH in 2:1 mole ratio

(B) CH3COONa and HCl in 1:1 mole ratio

(C) CH3COONa and HCl in 2:1 mole ratio

(D) CH3COONa and HCl in 1:2 mole ratio


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This section contains FIVE questions

The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive

For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS

Marking scheme :

+3 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened



56. An amount of 3.0 × 10 –3

mole of an ion nX ' exactly requires 1.5 × 10 –3

moles of 22 7Cr O # for the

oxidation of nX ' to 3XO # in acid medium. What is the value of n?

57. An quantity of 1 g dry green algae absorbs 5.0 × 10 –3

moles of CO2 per hour by photosynthesis.

If the carbon atoms were all stored after photosynthesis as starch (C6H10O5)n, how long (in hours)

would it take for algae to increase its own weight by 81%, assuming photosynthesis taking place at

a constant rate?


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58. AO2 disproportionates into AO4 –

and An+

ion. If the mole ratio of AO2 undergone oxidation and

reduction is 2:3, the value of n is:

59. A volume of 50 mL of 0.1 M – CuSO4 solution is electrolysed for 5 min at a current of 0.161 A.

If Cu is produced at one electrode and oxygen at the other, the approximate pH of the final solution

is :

60. An aqueous solution contains 10% ammonia by mass and has a density of 0.85 g/mL. If [H 3O+] in

this solution is 'yM', then the value of 'y × 1012

' is (Ka for NH4+ = 5.0 × 10

–10 M)

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