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PP-02 1B.1 www.TestFunda.com ANSWER KEY Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. 1 2 36 3 71 106 3 2 3 37 4 72 4 107 4 3 4 38 4 73 4 108 1 4 2 39 4 74 2 109 2 5 2 40 4 75 2 110 3 6 1 41 3 76 1 111 4 7 2 42 4 77 2 112 3 8 4 43 4 78 1 113 4 9 1 44 1 79 2 114 1 10 2 45 3 80 4 115 3 11 3 46 1 81 3 116 3 12 1 47 2 82 4 117 2 13 1 48 4 83 3 118 4 14 3 49 3 84 1 119 3 15 3 50 4 85 4 120 1 16 2 51 4 86 4 121 1 17 1 52 2 87 2 122 2 18 4 53 1 88 4 123 3 19 4 54 4 89 1 124 3 20 2 55 1 90 3 125 4 21 4 56 1 91 1 126 2 22 3 57 4 92 3 127 2 23 3 58 3 93 4 128 1 24 3 59 2 94 2 129 2 25 3 60 3 95 4 130 2 26 2 61 4 96 1 131 4 27 1 62 2 97 1 132 2 28 2 63 4 98 4 133 4 29 1 64 4 99 3 134 2 30 3 65 3 100 2 135 2 31 4 66 4 101 1 32 4 67 2 102 1 33 3 68 4 103 3 34 3 69 3 104 4 35 3 70 1 105 4 SOLUTIONS IIFT 2010 1B

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ANSWER KEY

Q. Ans.

Q. Ans.

Q. Ans.

Q. Ans.

1 2

36 3

71

106 3

2 3

37 4

72 4

107 4

3 4

38 4

73 4

108 1

4 2

39 4

74 2

109 2

5 2

40 4

75 2

110 3

6 1

41 3

76 1

111 4

7 2

42 4

77 2

112 3

8 4

43 4

78 1

113 4

9 1

44 1

79 2

114 1

10 2

45 3

80 4

115 3

11 3

46 1

81 3

116 3

12 1

47 2

82 4

117 2

13 1

48 4

83 3

118 4

14 3

49 3

84 1

119 3

15 3

50 4

85 4

120 1

16 2

51 4

86 4

121 1

17 1

52 2

87 2

122 2

18 4

53 1

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123 3

19 4

54 4

89 1

124 3

20 2

55 1

90 3

125 4

21 4

56 1

91 1

126 2

22 3

57 4

92 3

127 2

23 3

58 3

93 4

128 1

24 3

59 2

94 2

129 2

25 3

60 3

95 4

130 2

26 2

61 4

96 1

131 4

27 1

62 2

97 1

132 2

28 2

63 4

98 4

133 4

29 1

64 4

99 3

134 2

30 3

65 3

100 2

135 2

31 4

66 4

101 1

32 4

67 2

102 1

33 3

68 4

103 3

34 3

69 3

104 4

35 3

70 1

105 4

SOLUTIONS

IIFT 2010 1B

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Detailed Solutions:

( ) ∑

( ) ∑

( )

…(by definition of exponential series)

( ) ( ) ( )

( ) ∑

( )

( ) ∑

( )

( )

= (e – 1) + (e – 1) + (e – 1) = 3(e – 1)

Hence, option 2.

2. As n has to exceed 6,000,000, the first digit of n can be 6

or 7.

Case (i): The first digit of n is 6. Then the other six digits

are to be chosen from 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7.

Case (ii): The first digit of n is 7.

Then the other six digits are to be chosen from

3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6.

Total number of arrangements = 360 + 180 = 540

Hence, option 3.

3. Profit is directly proportional to the annual output and

the annual output is directly proportional to the number

of machines.

We can say that the profit is directly proportional to

the number of machines.

If 7.14% machines remain closed, the percentage

decrease in profit is also 7.14%.

Hence, option 4.

4. Required probability

Hence, option 2.

(

)

(

)

Marginal Revenue is the change in total fare due to

change in number of people by one unit. It is given by

[ (

) (

)] (

)

(

) (

)

(

)(

)

(

)(

)

(

)(

)

x = 1728 or x = 576

But x ≤ 900

x = 576

Hence, option 2.

6. We evaluate options:

Option (1) Let α = 37.5, β = 52.5, γ = 45.

α + β – γ = 45

( )

β + γ – α = 60

( )

γ + α – β = 30

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( )

Hence, option 1.

7. Capitals of Shyam, Gopal and Madhur are in the ratio

2 : 4 : 3.

Let the total profit be x .

By conditions,

[

]

x = 9000

Madhur’s share in the profit

Hence, option 2.

8. The words SERIES had one R, one I, two Es and two Ss.

Four letters can be selected and arranged in the

following ways:

Selection Arrangements

2S, 2E

2S, 1R, 1I

2E, 1R, 1I 12 ways

2S, 1R, 1E 12 ways

2S, 1I, 1E 12 ways

2E, 1R, 1S 12 ways

2E, 1I, 1S 12 ways

1S, 1E, 1R, 1I 24 ways

Total number of arrangements = 6 + 12 + 12 + 12 + 12

+ 12 + 12 + 24 = 102

Hence, option 4.

9. If the coordinates of the vertices of a triangle are (x1, y1),

(x2, y2) and (x3, y3) then its area is given by

|

|

If the third vertex of the given triangle is (x, y)

|

|

12 = 1(−1 − y) − 4(1 − y) + x(1 + 1)

12 = −1 – y − 4 + 4y + 2x

2x + 3y = 17 …(i)

But (x, y) also lies on y = x + 5 …(ii)

Solving (i) and (ii)

Hence, option 1.

10. Let p, m and b be the number of pineapple, mango and

black-forest pastries respectively.

p + m + b = 23 … (i)

Each pastry cost as many rupees as there were pastries

of that kind.

p2 + m2 + b2 = 211 … (ii)

Substituting options in (i) and (ii), we find that only

option 2 satisfies both the equations

Hence, option 2.

11. bx2 – 2ax + a = 0

Using the quadratic formula,

√ ( )

√ √

( √ √ ) ( √ √ )

( √ √ )

( ( ))

( √ √ )

( )

( √ √ )

√ (√ √ )

(√ √ )

The best answer is option 3.

Hence, option 3.

12. Let Dr. Gupta take x days to complete the evaluation

work.

Dr. Sharma takes x + 10 days

As Dr. Gupta is 40% more efficient than Dr. Sharma , we

have

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x = 25

x + 10 = 35

Also, Dr. Sharma is 20% more efficient than Dr. Singh.

If Dr. Singh takes y days to complete the evaluation

work,

y = 42

Now, let Dr. Singh complete the evaluation work in n

days after Dr. Gupta has worked for 10 days and Dr.

Sharma has worked for 15 days.

n = 7.2

Hence, option 1.

[√ ]

[√ ]

[√ ]

[√ ]

[√ ]

[√ ]

[√ ]

and so on.

[√ ]

where k2 is the greatest perfect square less than or equal

to n.

Also, the difference between two consecutive perfect

squares = (k + 1)2 – k2 = 2k + 1

The required sum is

[∑ ( )

] √

[∑

]

( )( )( )

( )

= 4408

The closest answer is option 1.

Hence, option 1.

(√ √ )

( ) (√ √ )

( ) (√ √ )

( ) (√ √ )

[

(√ √ ) ]

8x = 3x2 + 5

3x2 – 8x + 5 = 0

3x2 – 3x – 5x + 5 = 0

3x(x – 1) – 5(x – 1) = 0

(3x – 5)(x – 1) = 0

√ √

x ≠ 5/3

Hence, option 3.

15. Let the pipes work for n hours.

By the given conditions,

( ) [

]

( )

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n ≈ 3.05

Hence, option 3.

16. f(x)=3 sinx + 3 cos x

Using the inequality, AM ≥ GM

f(x) will have a minimum

where 3 sinx = 3 cos x

sin x = cos x

( )

(

√ )

Hence, option 2.

17. Let the number of professors, associate professors and

assistant professors be a, b and c respectively and their

average ages be p, q and r respectively.

( )

Also,

( ) ( ) ( )

a + 6b + 7c = 5a + 5b + 5c

b + 2c = 4a

b = 4a – c

Substituting in (i),

a + 4a – 2c + c = 60

5a – c = 60 …(ii)

We find that option 1 satisfies equations (i) and (ii).

Further, the values of p, q and r in option 1 also satisfy

the other equations.

Hence, option 1.

18. Let log5 2 be rational.

( ⁄ )

5m = 2n

However, number 2 raised to any positive integer power

must be even, but 5 raised to any positive integer power

must be odd.

Hence, we have a contradiction.

log5 2 is irrational.

Hence, option 4.

19.

Let the side of isosceles triangle be x.

√ √

Area of octagon = Area of square – 4 × Area of isosceles

triangle

(

√ )

√ ( √ )

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Hence, option 4.

20. 7! = 24 × 32 × 5 × 7

The required perfect square should be divisible by 16, 9,

5 and 7.

16 and 9 are already squares. Since 5 and 7 are not

perfect squares, we multiply 7! by 5 and 7 to make it a

perfect square.

So required perfect square =24 × 32 × 52 × 72 = 176400

Hence, option 2.

21.

n(A ⋃ B ⋃ C)= n(A) + n(B) + n(C) – n(A ⋂ B) – n(B ⋂ C) –

n(A ⋂ C) – 2n(A ⋂ B ⋂ C)

100 – 3 = 61 + 46 + 29 –25 – 2(x)

2x = 14

x = 7

Hence, option 4.

22.

2x2 is a power of 2.

Hence, x2 is a power of 2.

Hence, x is a power of 2.

Also by triangle inequality 3x2 > 295

x2 > 98.33

x ≥ 10

Hence, x is a power of 2 which is greater than 10.

We try with x = 16. Then we have,

AB = 256, AC = 512

Perimeter = 256 + 512 +295= 1063, which is there in

the options.

Hence, option 3.

23. Sum of numbers before x = sum of numbers after x

1 + 2 + 3 + … + (x – 1) = (x + 1) + (x + 2) + … + 49

Adding (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + … + (x – 1) + x) on both sides

2(1 + 2 + 3 + … +(x – 1)) + x = (1 + 2 + 3 + … + 49)

( )

x2 = 49 × 25

x = 7× 5 = 35

Hence, option 3.

24. Let the rate of second lender be y%, then rate of first

lender is (y + 10)%.

When they lend equal amounts

(

)

(

)

(

)

(

)

y = 20%

Now we evaluate options and find that option 3 satisfies

conditions.

(

)

(

)

Hence, option 3.

25. (1 – x6)4 (1 – x)–4

= (1 – 4x6 + 6x12 – 4x18 + x24)(1 – x)–4

To find the coefficient of x12 in the given expression, we

need to find the coefficients of x12, x6 and x0 terms in

(1 – x)–4

We use the Binomial Theorem for negative coefficients.

Coefficient of x12

( )( )( ) ( )

Coefficient of x6

( )( ) ( )

The coefficient of x0 is 1.

The coefficient of x12 is 35 × 13 + (– 4) × 84 + 6

=125

Hence, option 3.

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26.

Let Mukesh take Suresh on his bike till B and leave him

there to walk till C(Mathura). In the meanwhile, Dinesh

keeps walking to reach D, Mukesh comes back picks

Dinesh and then both ride to Mathura.

When Mukesh comes back, let us say he meets Dinesh at

E.

Let AB = x, then BC = 300 – x

Since Dinesh walks at 15 kmph and bike’s speed is 60

kmph, we have AD = x/4.

(

) (

)

4(300 – x)=300 + x/5

Hence, minimum time

Hence, option 2.

27.

Let the height of the cylinder be 5h than that of the

conical part be 3h.

( )

Radius of cone = radius of cylinder = 8

Let radius of hole = r

Now, 1/2(Total volume – Volume of hole) = Volume of

hole

Total volume = 3Volume of hole

(

)

82 × 6 = 8r2

r2 = 8 × 6

Hence, option 1.

28. Let initial production cost be 100.

Then cost of A = 10 and cost of B = 20

Selling price = 120

Cost of rest =100 – Cost of A – Cost of B

= 100 – 10 – 20 = 70

New cost = 28 + 12 + 70= 110

(

)

(

)

x 300 - x

A D E B C

(Delhi) (Mathura)

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= 138

≈ 25.5%

Hence, option 2.

29. By the cosine rule, in a ΔABC with ∠ACB = θ and AB = c,

BC = a and AC = b,

Hence, option 1.

30. Total number of subsets = 211

Total number of subsets without any even integer = 26

Hence, required number of subsets

= 211 – 26

= 2048 – 64

= 1984

Hence, option 3.

31. Create a table with three columns – date, day and

competition – as shown below:

Date Day Competition

19 Wed

20 Thu

21 Fri

22 Sat

23 Sun

24 Mon

25 Tue

26 Wed

Since there were 6 competitions and 8 days, and only

one competition was held per day; it means that exactly

2 days were completely free i.e. there was no

competition on that day. It is given that these two days

were Thursday and Sunday.

Now, street play was held on Monday.

Thus, the table becomes:

Date Day Competition

19 Wed

20 Thu n/a

21 Fri

22 Sat

23 Sun n/a

24 Mon Street Play

25 Tue

26 Wed

Flash-p was conducted a day before the debate and there

was a gap of 2 days between the debate and the group

song competition.

Therefore, there are 2 possibilities: GS __ Flash-p Debate

or Flash-p Debate __ __ GS

Now, for flash-p and the debate to be on consecutive

days, only two possibilities exist – Friday and Saturday

or Tuesday and Wednesday.

If the debate is on Wednesday, the group song will have

to be on Sunday, which is not possible.

Therefore, the flash-p competition and debate were on

Friday and Saturday respectively. Therefore, the Group

Song competition has to be on Tuesday.

Since the rock band competition was not held on the last

day, it could have only been conducted on the first day

i.e. October 19.

Therefore, the folk dance competition was held on the

last day i.e. 26 October.

Thus, the final table is as shown below:

Date Day Competition

19 Wed Rock Band

20 Thu n/a

21 Fri Flash-p

22 Sat Debate

23 Sun n/a

24 Mon Street Play

25 Tue Group Song

26 Wed Folk Dance

Thus, the cultural week started with the rock band

competition.

Hence, option 4.

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32. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the

first question.

The rock band competition and the group song

competition were held on October 19 and October 25

respectively.

Thus, there were five days in between.

Hence, option 4.

33. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the

first question.

The rock band and folk dance competitions were

conducted on Wednesday.

Hence, option 3.

34. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the

first question.

The debate competition exactly precedes the street play

competition.

Hence, option 3.

35. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the

first question.

The flash-p competition follows the rock band

competition.

Hence, option 3.

36. The parking lot can be as shown below:

___ ___ ___

___ ___ ___

Esteem is second to the right of i10.

Therefore, there are 2 possibilities:

___ ___ ___

i10 ___ Esteem

or

Esteem ___ i10

_________ ___ ___

Punto is parked diagonally opposite i10 and Alto is next

to Punto.

Thus, we get:

___ Alto Punto

i10 ___ Esteem

or

Esteem ___ i10

Punto Alto ___

Now, SX4 is to the immediate right of Alto and Swift is

opposite Alto.

Therefore, we get

SX4 Alto Punto

i10 Swift Esteem

or

Esteem Swift i10

Punto Alto SX4

Now, if SX4 and Esteem interchange their position, in

either case, the car next to Esteem will be Alto.

There is no other car next to Esteem.

Hence, option 3.

37. Alto changes position with i10, Punto changes position

with SX4 and Swift shifts one position to the right to

accommodate Beatle.

Therefore, the arrangements are as shown below:

Swift Beatle Alto

SX4 i10 Punto

or

Punto i10 SX4

Alto Beatle Swift

In either case, the cars next to Beatle are Alto and Swift.

Hence, option 4.

38. 4 new cars have entered the car park.

Wagon-R is second to the right of i10, Zen is second to

the left of SX4, Jazz is second to the left of Wagon-R and

Beat is to the right of Alto.

Using these conditions, the arrangement is as shown

below:

Wagon R Swift Jazz

Zen Alto Beat

or

Beat Alto Zen

Jazz Swift Wagon R

Thus, the cars that have gone out are Esteem, i10, Punto

and Sx4.

Alto and Swift have not gone out.

Options 1, 2 and 3 mention either Swift or Alto.

Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 can be eliminated.

Hence, option 4.

39. Construct a table with the names of the graduates,

companies, locations and email providers.

Note that the company and location are given as a pair.

Thus, if one of these two parameters is known for a

person or corresponding to an email provider, the other

is also automatically known.

From (ii), we get: HCL – Noida – Sancharnet and Tisco –

Jamshedpur – Indiatimes.

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Now, consider the information which directly mentions

the location, company or provider for a person.

Rahul works for Telco in Pune and uses Rediffmail.

Kabeer works for Usha Martin in Kolkata and Anup

works for Tisco in Jamshedpur.

Thus, the table is as shown below:

Graduate Company Location Email

Provider

Rahul Telco Pune Rediffmail

Kabeer Usha Martin Kolkata

Anup Tisco Jamshedpur

Raghu

Amit

Alok

Now, since neither Alok nor Raghu work in Noida, Amit

works for HCL in Noida.

Therefore, Amit uses Sancharnet.

Similarly, Anup uses Indiatimes.

Thus, the table becomes:

Graduate Company Location Email

Provider

Rahul Telco Pune Rediffmail

Kabeer Usha

Martin Kolkata

Anup Tisco Jamshedpur Indiatimes

Raghu

Amit HCL Noida Amit

Alok

Since Alok does not work for Mecon, Raghu works for

Mecon and Alok works for Wipro.

Therefore, Alok and Raghu work in Bangalore and

Ranchi respectively.

Since the person who works in Mecon has an account

with Gmail, Raghu has an account with Gmail.

Since the person who works in Wipro does not have a

Yahoo account, Alok has to have a Hotmail account and

Kabeer has to have a Yahoo account.

Thus, the final table is as shown below:

Graduate Company Location Email

Provider

Rahul Telco Pune Rediffmail

Kabeer Usha

Martin Kolkata Yahoo

Anup Tisco Jamshedpur Indiatimes

Raghu Mecon Ranchi Gmail

Amit HCL Noida Sancharnet

Alok Wipro Bangalore Hotmail

Thus, the person who works in Wipro has an e-mail

account with Hotmail.

Hence, option 4.

40. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the

first question.

It can be seen that only the Raghu-Ranchi-Gmail

combination is correct.

Hence, option 4.

41. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the

first question.

Among the options, the only statement that is true is that

Kabeer has an email-id with Yahoo.

Hence, option 3.

42. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the

first question.

The sequence of location for Alok, Kabeer, Anup, Rahul,

Raghu and Amit, in that order, is Bangalore, Kolkata,

Jamshedpur, Pune, Ranchi and Noida.

Hence, option 4.

43. Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the

first question.

The people who have an email account with Indiatimes,

Sancharnet and Yahoo work for Tisco, HCL and Usha

Martin respectively.

Hence, option 4.

44. Consider the given sequence

7090070890702030045703907

There is only one zero that is immediately preceded by a

nine and is not immediately followed by seven.

Hence, option 1.

45. According to the given conditions, the relative position of

each city is as shown in the figure below:

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The shortest route for the truck would be

DC-R3-R1-R6-R7.

Thus, the total distance travelled would be

14 + 11 + 23 + 15 = 63 km

Hence, option 3.

46. The sharpest decline in cost per square feet will be for a

retailer having the maximum slope for the cost line; with

the cost per square feet on the y-axis and years on the x-

axis.

Now, since the change in the x-axis i.e. number of years is

constant for all 4 options i.e. 1 year, the sharpest decline

will be for the retailer having the maximum drop in the

cost per square feet for that particular year.

Decline in cost per square feet for the retailers given in

the options is:

Westside, 2005 : 2411 – 1724 = 687

Pantaloon, 2008 : 2044 – 1656 = 388

S.Stop, 2009 : 2419 – 2197 = 222

Vishal, 2010 : 1659 – 1064 = 595

Hence, the sharpest decline is for Westside in the year

2005.

Hence, option 1.

47. The increase in cost per square feet for the retailers in

the given options is:

S.Stop, 2006 : 2135 – 1889 = 246

S.Stop, 2007 : 2464 – 2135 = 329

Pantaloon, 2006 : 1996 – 1729 = 267

Vishal, 2006 : 1802 – 1832 = 30

Hence, the maximum increase in cost per square feet

among the given options is for S.Stop in 2007.

Hence, option 2.

48. The rate of change for the each retailer in the period

FY07 to FY10E is

For Pantaloons: {(1396 – 2044)/2044 100 = 31.70%

For S. Stop: {(2230 – 2464)/2464} × 100 = – 9.5%

For Vishal: {(1064 – 1751)/1751} × 100 = – 39.23%

For Westside: {(1051 – 1525)/1525} × 100 = –31.08%

Hence, the average rate of change in the cost per square

feet of the retail sector in the period FY07 to FY10E is:

(31.70 + 9.5 + 39.23 + 31.08)/4 i.e. – 27.88%

Hence, option 4.

49. The rate of change from Dec 2009 to March 2010 for U.P.

(E), Bihar, Orissa and Haryana are:

( )

Orissa has shown the maximum rate of change from

Dec 2009 to March 2010.

Hence, option 3.

50. Since R-com has 28% subscribers in the east and

Vodafone has 72% subscribers in the east, these two are

the only operators in the east.

Similarly, Idea and Airtel are the only players in the

south.

Now, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, TN (including

Chennai) and Kerala are in the south.

Hence, the number of subscribers in the south in 2010

= 39.91 + 48.09 + 57.26 + 27.65 = 172.91 million

Now, Idea has 48 % of these subscribers.

Hence, the number of subscribers that Idea had in the

south = 172.91 × 0.48 = 82.99 million

Similarly, the number of subscribers that Airtel had in

the south = 172.91 × 0.52 = 89.91 million

Only option D shows these values for Idea and Airtel.

Hence, option 4.

Alternatively,

As R-com has 28% and Vodafone has 72% of the

subscribers in the east, the number of subscribers for R-

com and Vodafone mentioned in the options must satisfy

this condition. i.e. the number of subscribers mentioned

for R-com must be 28% of the sum of number of

subscribers mentioned for R-com and Vodafone in that

option.

Only option 4 satisfies this condition.

Hence, option 4.

51. Percentage share of R-com, Vodafone and Idea in

Madhya Pradesh and entire UP is given.

However, the percentage breakup of these players in the

other eastern states is not known.

Also, the other operators (if any) in the other eastern

states are not known.

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Hence, a definite conclusion about the percentage share

of these players in the newly formed eastern region is

not possible

Hence, among the given options, only option 4 is feasible.

Hence, option 4.

Note: Since the question does not state explicitly that

data from the previous question can be used, the

percentage break up given in the previous question

cannot be assumed in this question.

52. Find the total number of subscribers in Dec 2009

(in million) and Mar 2010 (in million).

Total number of subscribers in Dec 2009 (in million)

= 562.18

Total number of subscriber in March 2010 (in million)

= 621.30

The required rate of change

( )

Hence, option 2.

53. The points earned by Maheshwari & Co. are as follows:

Points for Company Signage = 10

Points for Company X wall painting in the exterior of the

store = 20

Points for Company X painting in the interior of the store

= 2.5

Points for POP display of company X = 5

Points for stacking of company X goods in the shelves = 0

Thus, total brand building points

= 10 + 20 + 2.5 + 5 + 0 = 37.5

As Maheshwari & Co. has achieved more than 100%

sales target, they will get 15 points for the first 100%

and then additional points on a per unit basis.

Maheshwari & Co. had sold 56241 – 50000 = 6241 extra

units and they will get 0.25 points for each extra unit

sold.

Therefore, they will get 6241 × 0.25 = 1560.25 extra

points.

Hence total points earned

= 37.5 + 15 + 1560.25 = 1612.75

600 points are required to redeem 1 Tupperware set.

Hence, Maheshwari & Co. will be able to redeem only 2

Tupperware sets.

Hence, option 1.

54. The points earned by Bhowmik Brothers are as follows:

Points for company Signage = – 20

Points for company X wall painting in the exterior of the

store = 2.5

Points for company X painting in the interior of the store

= 2.5

Points for POP display of company X = 0

Points for stacking of company X goods in the shelves

= 10

Thus, total brand building points

= – 20 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 0 + 10 = – 5

As Bhowmik Brothers has achieved 75 – 99% of the sales

target, it will get 12 points for sales.

Hence total points = –5 + 12 = 7

For minimum redemption, they should have atleast 40

points (for an umbrella).

Therefore, they need 33 more points.

Hence, option 4.

55. Brand building points of Saha H/W = 85.

Since Saha H/W had achieved more than 100% of the

sales target, they get 15 points for the sales.

Also, they sold 512 extra units and so get

512 × 0.25 = 128 extra points.

Saha H/W will get 85 points again for brand building in

the next quarter.

Also, since Saha H/W will have to sell extra units, it

would have achieved more than 100% of the sales.

Therefore, it will also get 15 points for achieving 100%

sales.

Therefore, excluding the extra points earned next

quarter, the total points for Saha H/W at the end of next

quarter are 85 + 15 + 128 + 85 + 15 = 328

To redeem a Kanjivaram saree, Saha H/W must have

4000 points.

Hence, the extra points that need to be earned in the

second quarter = 4000 ‒ 328 = 3672

For every extra sale, Saha H/W gets 0.25 points.

Therefore, to get 3672 extra points, the extra sales

should be 3672 × 4 = 14688

Hence, option 1.

56. One Nike cap and one umbrella can be redeemed using

40 and 100 points respectively.

Therefore, to redeem 3 Nike caps and 1 Umbrella,

Malling Enterprise used 3 × 100 + 40 = 340 points.

Since Malling Enterprise has exhausted all its points,

they had a total of 340 points.

Now, Malling had achieved more than 100% of the sales

target and so will get 15 points for sales.

Since, they had sold 1000 extra units, they get

1000 × 0.25 = 250 extra points for this.

Therefore, total points through sales = 15 + 250 = 265

The remaining points have to be through brand building.

Hence, brand building points = 340 265 = 75

Hence, option 1.

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57. Srikrishna Trader had 80 brand building points.

Since they have achieved more than 100 % of the sales

target, they get 15 points for achieving the target.

Additionally, they had sold 2000 extra units and so get

2000 × 0.25 = 500 extra points for it.

Hence, total points of Srikrishna Trader

= 500 + 15 + 80 = 595

One Tupperware set requires 600 points for redemption

and so cannot be redeemed using these points.

Observe that options 1, 2 and 3 mention a Tupperware

set and so are not possible.

Therefore, options 1, 2 and 3 get eliminated.

Srikrishna Trader can redeem a Nike cap (100 points)

and a T-shirt (200 points) using their points.

Hence, option 4.

58. The ratio of CO2 emission to per capita income for USA,

China and Japan after two years will be :

Hence, option 3.

59. To bring down the ratio of CO2 emission to per capita

income to meet the standard benchmark of 0.75, US and

China will have to bring down their CO2 emission to

(300 × 0.75) and (270 × 0.75) respectively i.e. 225 and

202.5 million tons respectively.

Hence, the amount of CO2 emission US and China have to

cut down to meet the standard benchmark is (1200 –

225) and (1180 – 202.5) i.e. 975 and 977.5 million tons

respectively.

To reduce 0.5 million tons of CO2 emission, a country has

to purchase 1.25 units of carbon credits.

Therefore, to reduce 1 million tons of CO2 emission 2.5

units of carbon credits need to be purchased.

Hence, to reduce CO2 emission by 975 and 977.5 million

tons, the amount of carbon credits that need to be

purchased by the US and China are (975 × 2.5) and

(977.5 × 2.5) i.e. 2437.5 and 2443.75 respectively.

The number of carbon credits that a country can buy in a

year is 65 (15 + 20 + 20).

Therefore, the number of years that U.S. and China will

respectively take to get the ratio to the required level is

(2437.5/65) i.e. 37.5 years and (2443.75/65) i.e. 37.6.

Hence, in 38 years US and China will be able to bring

down its CO2 emission to per capita income to the world

standard benchmark of 0.75.

Hence, option 2.

60. By selling 0.5 CO2 emissions the energy consortium earns 1.25 carbon credits.

The number of carbon credits earned by any country in the consortium

= (Total CO2 emission saved) × (1.25/0.5)

Total CO2 emission saved by any country in the consortium = 350 – revised CO2 emission by that country.

Revised total CO2 emission per year for each country in the consortium = Revised ratio × revised per capita income per year.

The per capita income increases by 2%, 2.5% and 3.5% in the first, second and third year respectively.

The ratio of CO2 emissions to per capita income becomes half and stays constant for three years after that.

Thus, all the revised values are as shown in the table below:

Country

Revised

CO2

emission

to per

capita

ratio

(r)

Per

capita

income

for year

one

(PC1)

Per capita

income

for year

two

(PC2)

Per

capita

income

for year

three

(PC3)

CO2

emission

for year

one

(C1 = r ×

PC1)

CO2

emission

for year

two

(C2 = r ×

PC2)

CO2

emission

for year

three

(C3 = r ×

PC3)

Saving of

CO2

emission

for year

one

(S1 = 350

– PC1)

Saving of

CO2

emission

for year

two

(S2 = 350

– PC2)

Saving of

CO2

emission

for year

three

(S3 = 350

– PC3)

France 1.41 163.2 167.3 173.1 230.1 235.9 244.1 120 114 106

SA 1.61 142.8 146.4 151.5 229.9 235.6 243.9 120 114 106

Australia 1.06 168.3 172.5 178.5 178.4 182.8 189.2 171 167 161

Ukraine 1.08 188.7 193.4 200.2 203.8 208.9 216.2 146 141 134

Poland 1.02 198.9 203.9 211 202.9 207.9 215.2 147 142 135

Total - - - - - - - 704 678 642

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Therefore, the total CO2 emissions saved by France, SA, Australia, Ukraine and Poland over three years

= S1 + S2 + S3

= 2024 million tons

Hence, the number of carbon credits earned by the energy consortium in three years

= 2024 × (1.25/0.5)

= 5060 units

Hence, option 3.

61. Start with the statement in option 2 as it requires the figures to be used as they are given in the bar graph.

Country CO2 emission/Per capita income

US 4

China 4.37

Russia 4.12

Japan 4.7

India 2.5

Germany 3.46

UK 4.44

Canada 3.16

Italy 2.94

France 2.81

SA 3.21

Australia 2.18

Spain 2.22

Ukraine 2.16

Poland 2.05

From the above table, we can conclude that India stands at the 5th position at the given CO2 emission level and per capita

income of each country (in increasing order).

Hence, the statement in option 2 is true.

Consider option 1. Since 50 is added to the per capita income for each country, the ratio given in the above table decreases

for each country and for India it becomes 2.

This implies that any country having CO2 emission value greater than twice the revised per capita income will have a ratio

greater than India.

Only four countries (Australia, Spain, Ukraine and Poland) have the required ratio less than India.

Hence, India stands at the 5th position in this case also.

Hence, the statement in option 1 is also true.

Consider option 3. Since 200 million tons are deducted from the given CO2 emission value, the ratio given in the above table

decreases for each country and for India it becomes 1.5.

This implies that any country having CO2 emission value greater than one and half times the revised per capita income will

have a ratio greater than India.

Only four countries (Australia, Spain, Ukraine and Poland) have the required ratio less than India.

Hence India stands at the 5th position in this case also.

Hence, the statement in option 3 is also true.

Since the statement in options 1, 2 and 3 is true, the statement in option 4 is false.

Hence, option 4.

62. Note that the units are given in degrees.

Number of units in Bihar ~ Number of units in MP

( )

Hence, option 2.

63. Female population

= (Total population – Male population)

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Therefore, the percentage increase in Female population

in 1996, 1999, 2004 and 2005 is as given below:

Thus, the percentage change in the number of females

over the previous year is the highest in 2005.

Hence, option 4.

64. Number of educated people in 2002 = 545

Therefore, number of educated males in 2002

= (5/9) 545 ≈ 303

and, number of educated females in 2002

= 545 – 303 = 242

Now, number of females in 2002

= Total population – Total male population = 350

Hence, number of uneducated females in 2002

= 350 – 242 = 108

The number of educated males increases by 25% in

2003.

Hence, number of educated males in 2003

= 1.25 303 ≈ 379

Therefore, number of educated females in 2003

= 560 – 379 ≈ 181

Now, number of females in 2003

= Total population ‒ Total male population = 350

Hence, number of uneducated females in 2003

= 350 – 181 ≈ 169

Hence, percentage change in uneducated females

= (169 – 108)/108 100 ≈56%

Hence, option 4.

65. Total population of urban area in 2005

= 0.68 × 600 = 408 million

Total population in 2005 = 900 million

Therefore, population of rural area in 2005

= 900 – 408 = 492 million

Population of rural area in 2010

Therefore, the required ratio = 492/240 = 2.05

Hence, option 3.

66. The passage gives ample data stating how Kodak could

not envisage the pace of change in business happening

around it. Even though it did identify the change coming,

the steps taken did not help the company maintain the

leading position in its core business of photography.

Option 4 encapsulates that.

Options 1 and 2 merely point to one piece of data

presented in the passage and are not the central theme

of the passage.

Option 3 is contrary to the central theme- even if Kodak's

managers were able to predict the flow of digital

technology, they were not able to predict their critical

value drivers.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

67. Statements I and IV have been stated in the passage.

Statements II and III contradict data given in the passage.

Statement II is incorrect as the passage states that

chemically treated photo paper is different from

hormonal agents and cardiovascular drugs; the

customers and delivery channels are also different.

Statement III is incorrect as the passage states that

Kodak committed a mistake by acquiring Sterling in the

first place. It was out of sync with Kodak's business

model. Hence, selling it off (without consideration for the

low price) was the most logical thing to do.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

68. The reason Kodak lost a big piece of its market share was

its inability to move away from print photography and

seize up the digital business opportunity.

The discontinuation of the award winning camera was

an effect rather than a cause for losing market share.

Eliminate statement II.

We have no data in the passage about Carp's tenure with

Kodak or his understanding of technology. Eliminate

statement I.

Statements III and IV are some of the prime reasons that

can be attributed for Kodak's loss of market share.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

69. The correct sequence of events is:

Statement II: Kodak bought Sterling and entered into

chemical business.

Statement IV: It tied up with firms for photo processing.

Statement I: It lost its market share

Statement III: Kodak employed less than one third of its

work force compared to the work force employed two

decades earlier.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

70. The correct match is:

1. Intel – d. Intel's co-founder Gordon Moore's

prediction of 50% reduced prices of technology

products every year or two.

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2. Fisher – a. preview cameras.

3. AOL – b. tied up with Kodak for developing and

posting online photos.

4. Agfa – c. sold its film and paper business which later

went into bankruptcy.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

71. The question asks us to identify the statement(s) which

do NOT reflect the true essence of the passage.

Statements I and III can be considered to reflect the

essence of the passage.

Statement II states that ‘investors appropriately discount

the announcements’, which gives the impression that

investors disregard the announcements. This is contrary

to the passage which mentions the ‘almost blind faith

investors place in governmental economic releases’.

Statement IV talks about two reactions being the ‘same’,

whereas ‘statisticians stumbling’ has not been

mentioned in the passage.

Therefore, both statements II and IV do not reflect the

true essence of the passage.

We do not have an answer option with statements II and

IV.

Hence, this question is ambiguous.

72. The question stem asks us to choose the answer option

which does not describe the anomaly mentioned in the

passage.

Psychological pressures do account for anomaly-

according to the passage - along with small sample size

and incorrect government statistics. Therefore statement

I can be eliminated.

Statement III has also been mentioned in the passage-

investors taking shortcuts with small sample sizes and

little particles of information. Therefore, it can be

eliminated.

Statement II is not implied in the passage. Further, it

does not mention any anomaly at all.

Statement IV- subjectively calculated probabilities and

their large distortions have not been mentioned in the

passage at all, nor can they be implied.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

73. Tversky and Kahneman's findings relate to errors made

by taking small sample sizes which are not

representative of the larger population.

Statement I is an extension of this rule and can be

eliminated.

Statement II reiterates the findings.

Statement III has not been mentioned in the passage at

all nor can it be inferred.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

74. Statement I has been mentioned in the passage- refer to

the publicity and large number of new clients that

advisers manage to secure.

Statement III has been explicitly mentioned in the

passage- refer to the second sentence of paragraph 3.

Statement II contradicts the passage. Public opinion polls

are fairly accurate because of large representative

groups and not ‘diminutive representative groups’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

75. Option 1 can be eliminated because of the word ‘only’.

The passage mentions “usually”.

Option 2 has been mentioned verbatim in the third

sentence of the first paragraph, with ‘not overwhelmed’

(in the passage) substituted by ‘underwhelmed’ (in the

statement).

Option 3 is not true because of ‘always’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

76. The Instrumental prediction is that the outcome of the

experience affects commitment. Better outcome leads to

more commitment. Therefore, a-1.

According to the passage, from the instrumental

viewpoint, people are concerned about tangible

outcomes. Therefore, a-4.

‘Assimilation’, ‘Group value’ and ‘Institutional’ do not

match with any of the meanings given in the second

column. We can eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

77. Option 1 is incorrect because it limits the summary to

‘legal authorities’. The passage is much broader than

merely legal authorities.

Option 3 is an inference. Secondly, ‘the generally positive

consequences to organisations’ gives us only a partial

view of the passage.

Option 4 is not an effective summary because ‘happiness’

is not the core of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

78. The passage mentions, “Buffet did this in markets bullish

and bearish and through economies fat and lean, from

the Eisenhower years to Bill Clinton, from the 1950s to

the 1990s, from saddle shoes to Vietnam to junk bonds

and the information age.”

Markets bullish and bearish reflect turbulent stock

markets; economies fat and lean signify turbulent

economic growth; Eisenhower years to Bill Clinton

reflect political changes; saddle shoes and Vietnam

signify fashion and politics; junk bonds and the

information age signify modern market instruments and

new technology. Thus each sector of the polity is being

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expressed through examples. Thus, statement V is

correct.

Option 1 has I and V while option 3 has III and V.

Statement III has not been expressed in the passage.

Nowhere has the passage made a distinction between

modern US population and traditional expatriates.

Therefore, option 3 can be eliminated.

‘Dernier cri and Vietnam war’ symbolise saddle shoes

and Vietnam. In the passage Vietnam has been used to

signify the Vietnam war while Dernier cri - which means

the latest fashion - has been used to imply saddle shoes

(which were the fad in the 1950s). The passage

mentions, “from the 1950s to the 1990s.” Saddle shoes

were popular among girls in the 1950s; the Vietnam war

occurred in the 1960s and 70s; junk bonds were

invented in the 1980s and the information age

corresponds to the 1990s.

Statements I and V are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

79. Depression occurred in the 1930s, Eisenhower was

President of the United States in the 1950s while

Microsoft is contemporary. Thus, statement I is correct.

California – New York – Omaha is an incorrect sequence.

California has been mentioned after Omaha in the

passage while New York has not been mentioned in the

passage. Statement II is an incorrect sequence.

The passage mentions J. P. Morgan as a predecessor of

Buffet, while Bill Gates is current and contemporary.

They are all business magnates. Therefore, statement III

is correct.

We do not know the order as to the development of

Mutual funds – Hedge funds. Brokers were in existence

long before these modern market instruments. Therefore

statement IV is incorrect sequentially.

Statements I & III are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

80. Statement I is correct. The passage mentions his lack of

reliance on computers or price charts. Further, he lived a

simple lifestyle and his “homespun manner made him a

cult figure”. Therefore, we can infer that he was simple

and outmoded.

We can eliminate statement II because the passage is

totally silent on Buffet's opinions on planned economies

and technologies.

Statement III is correct. The passage mentions, “Even his

children could scarcely recall a time when he broke

through his surface calm and showed some feeling”.

From this we can infer that he was deadpan.

Statement IV is incorrect. The passage mentions his

“tranquility in his inner sanctum”. This contradicts the

assertion made in the statement that he was spiritually

raw.

Statements I and III are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

81. The gist of the sentence is that some issues are extremely

complex and any knee jerk (hasty) reaction will result in

some sort of a loss for the shareholder.

For the first blank we can eliminate ‘unassociated’ and

‘contexed’ since they do not fit in logically. We can

eliminate options 1 and 4. That leaves us with ‘nuanced’

and ‘ambiguous’, both of which are appropriate. For the

second blank, ‘loss of plutocracy for all shareholders’ is

meaningless, since plutocracy means the rule of the

wealthy; while ‘loss of opportunity for all shareholders’

makes eminent sense.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

82. The gist of the sentence is that growth under this

government has been high and remarkably steady even

during the worst global economic crisis.

‘Impededly’ and ‘obstructedly’ can be eliminated for the

first blank, since they are not in sync with “high”. We can

eliminate options 1 and 3.

Between options 2 and 4 ‘resilient’ is our correct word as

an economy cannot be remarkably ‘intractable’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

83. The gist of the sentence seems to be that there are

different and conflicting versions of what happened, but

that the dastardly act must be condemned in no

uncertain terms.

‘Dissimilar’, ‘Contrary’ and ‘Conflicting’ are all

appropriate for the first blank, while ‘unique’ is not. We

can eliminate option 4.

For the second blank, ‘unequivocally’ meaning

‘unambiguously and clearly’ best reflects the tone and

tenor of the sentence. ‘Concertedly’ meaning ‘contrived’

and ‘obviously’ are unsuited for the second blank.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

84. Seats cannot be ‘hinged’, ‘pended’ or ‘retracted’ into

position; they can only be ‘swiveled’ into position. We

can eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

85. For the first blank, only ‘peremptorily’ and ‘arbitrarily’

make logical sense. ‘Complaisantly’ and ‘democratically’

contradict the logical tenor of the sentence. We can

eliminate options 2 and 3.

Between, ‘ascribed’ and ‘unrelated’, ‘unrelated’ fits

logically into the second blank of the sentence. ‘Ascribed’

meaning ‘attributed to’ is logically inconsistent.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

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86. ‘Growth’ and ‘boom’ can be eliminated immediately since

they will contradict the logical tenor required for the

first blank. The first blank needs a word with a negative

connotation as evidenced by ‘lapse into ___’. We can

eliminate options 1 and 2. Both, ‘recession’ and

‘dirigisme’, meaning ‘control by the State of economic

and social matters’ can fit the first blank.

Since serious policy reforms are aimed at increasing or

boosting economic growth, ‘boosted’ is the correct word

for the second blank. ‘Reduced’ contradicts the ‘serious

policy reforms’ part. We can eliminate option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

87. Option 1 has a modifying error. The statement implies

‘Large and experienced firms being better at acquiring

smaller firms but not at acquiring large and

inexperienced firms.’

Options 3 and 4 with a comma after ‘experienced firms’

do not grammatically complete the sentence with the

latter part of the sentence (the non-underlined part).

Moreover, the verb is missing in option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

88. Options 1 and 3 are incorrect with ‘that of the 4

percent....’

Option 2 has an erroneous comma inserted after

‘October-December quarter’.

Option 4 completes the sentence with no flaws.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

89. Options 2 and 3 provide an incorrect construction-

‘...ignoring the advice of Warren Buffet warning that ….’

Option 4 also provides an incorrect construction -

‘...ignoring the advice of Warren Buffet who was

warning that ….’’

Option 1 provides a smooth flow to the sentence without

introducing any ambiguities.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

90. “Impuissance” means ‘helplessness; lack of effectiveness;

weak’.

“Desecrate” means ‘defile; violate; dishonour’.

“Decrepit” and “effete” mean ‘worn out’. “Bedraggled”

means ‘soiled; untidy; dilapidated’. These words are in

consonance with the first given word.

“Desolate” means ‘devastated; laid waste’. “Sacrilege”

means violation. “Profanity” means irreverence. These

words are in consonance with the second given word.

“Ornery”, meaning ‘ugly; unpleasant; inferior’, and

“Contort”, meaning ‘distort; twist out of shape’, are

completely unrelated to the given pair.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

91. “Insouciant” means ‘carefree; light hearted’.

“Gossamer” means ‘light, flimsy, delicate’.

“Perfunctory” means ‘superficial; uninterested’.

“Pococurante” means ‘careless; indifferent’. “Nonchalant”

means ‘unconcerned’. These words are in consonance

with “insouciant”.

“Diaphanous” means ‘sheer’. “Pellucid” means

‘translucent’. “Tiffany” is ‘a sheer mesh fabric’. These

words are in consonance with “gossamer”.

“Nymphs” refers to ‘graceful women’ and “Gehenna”

refers to ‘a place of torment’. These words are

completely unrelated to the words in the given pair.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

92. Dilettante has been incorrectly spelt as diletante.

Reminiscence has been incorrectly spelt as

reminiscience.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

93. Munificent has been incorrectly spelt as munificient.

Pusillanimous has been incorrectly spelt as

psusillanimous.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

94. Statement II introduces the paragraph with ‘stack’.

Eliminate option 3.

Statement IV takes the idea further and III gives a

detailed description on it. Therefore IV and III are a pair.

We can eliminate options 1 and 4.

Statement I goes on to mention that it is not as simple as

explained in the first three statements. Thus, it can only

fit in as a conclusion.

The sequence is II, IV, III, I.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

95. Statement I introduces the theme- views of a “skeptical

empiricist”. We can eliminate option 2. Statement II

takes it forward and IV, V mention that the author does

not want to focus on specific organs in the brain. Why?

III and VI provide the answer- that we do not observe

brain functions very well.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

96. Statement III does not provide a logical start. Eliminate

option 4.

Statements VI and V also do not provide a logical flow.

Eliminate option 3.

Between options 1 and 2, option 1 has a smooth flow.

The jump from statement V to II in option 1 connects

well compared to a jump from statement V to III in

option 2.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

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97. Statement III introduces the theme- statisticians. We can

eliminate options 2 and 3.

V connects with I- tend to leave their brains in the

classroom. Therefore, what is the consequence? They

commit the most trivial errors when they are out on the

streets- thus IV and II are a pair. We can eliminate option

4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

98. Statement VI is incomplete and cannot be the final

statement of the sentence.

The only option that does not have statement VI at the

end is option 4.

The statements in option 4 have a smooth flow.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

99. Statement II will definitely occur before I in the sentence.

In II the author mentions that he would not have cared

except for the fact that people got all excited (as

mentioned in statement I). We can eliminate options 1

and 2.

Statements II and IV are a pair- the author mentions that

he would not have cared the least about them. Statement

I will follow IV because it gives the reason why the

author had no option but to care. Eliminate option 4.

Statements I, III and VI go together.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

100. “Omniscient” means ‘complete knowledge’. Therefore,

the relationship in the given pair is a synonymous one,

with the first word being of a greater degree than the

second.

Similarly, “boundless” means ‘without any limit’, and is a

greater degree of “expanse”, which means ‘an

uninterrupted surface of something that spreads or

extends’.

“Saturnine” means ‘sluggish; gloomy’, and is antonymous

to “energy”.

“Inquisitive: science” is unrelated, as is “complete:

retraction”. They do not exhibit a similar relationship to

the capitalized pair.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

101. “Disquietude” is a noun and means ‘a state of anxiety’.

“Anxious” is an adjective.

Similarly, ‘nonplus’ is a noun and means ‘the state of

utter perplexity’. ‘Perplexed’ is an adjective.

The remaining pairs do not express such a relationship.

“Cupidity” means ‘eager to possess something; greed’.

“Bellicose” means ‘ready to fight’.

“Embellishment” means ‘a fictitious addition’.

“Overstated” means ‘stated strongly; exaggerated’.

“Magnitude” means ‘size; extent’. “Unabridged” means

‘complete; not shortened’.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

102. “Deviate” means ‘to digress’, as from a line of thought or

reasoning. One may deviate from the line of

teaching/thought during a lecture.

Similarly, when going on a ‘drive’, one may ‘meander’, or

wander from the set course.

The remaining options do not show such a relationship.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

103. “Nebulous” means ‘lacking definite form or shape’.

Therefore, the relationship is that of ‘lacking’.

“Insincere” means ‘not honest in the expression of actual

feeling’. “Misanthrope” is ‘one who hates humankind’.

“Benevolent” means ‘charitable’. “Excellence” means

‘superiority’.

“Composed” means ‘calm’. “Innocence” means ‘free from

moral wrong’.

“Insipid” means ‘lacking taste’. This pair is similar in

relationship to that of the capitalized pair.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

104. ‘Blunder’ and ‘mistake’ together create an error in

redundancy. Eliminate option 1.

Option 2 should read ‘I have learnt this lesson word for

word.’ Word for word is a phrase, meaning verbatim.

Option 3 is incorrect. The correct sentence is - ‘She does

not know how to swim.’

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

105. Option 1 has a subject-verb agreement error- ‘The

average male investor....he is (not they are) often

disappointed.’

Option 2 has an error in comparison – The people in my

country are compared to other countries. The sentence

can be corrected as - ‘The people in my country are

smarter than those/ the people in other countries’.

Option 3 also has a subject-verb agreement error. ‘The

number....is (not are)’.

Option 4 has no such errors.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.