e-Prac CAT # 02 - Test

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PTpnrpc02 1 of 30 L O P E N A L O N G T H I S E D G E L D O N O T O P E N F R O M T H I S S I D E Corp. Office: Delhi Regd. Office: Indore PT centres spread across India ~ Established 1993 Our motto “Kar Ke Dikhayenge” is delivered through our unique Technology Driven Process Engine (TDpro engine). Email: [email protected] Web: www.PTeducation.com e PracCAT # 02 3DUW RI WKH 7HVWV SURYLGHG E\ 37 INSTRUCTIONS 1. Keep only the ID Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place indicated by the invigilator. 2. This test contains three sections which examine various abilities. There are 25 questions in Section I, 25 questions in Section II and 25 questions in Section III. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all the three sections. 3. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions. There is only one correct answer to each question. 4. All questions carry four marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one mark. 5. Do your rough work only on the test booklet and NOT on the answer sheet. 6. Revising and analysing your performance after the test is over is critical to your improved performance in the next test(s). A positive attitude to revise, analyse and learn from mistakes will be a great plus. .

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prac cat test model conducted by PT TUTORIALS ..FOR PRACTICE OF CAT..

Transcript of e-Prac CAT # 02 - Test

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Our motto “Kar Ke Dikhayenge” is delivered through our unique Technology Driven Process Engine (TDpro engine). Email: [email protected] Web: www.PTeducation.com

e­ Prac­CAT # 02 (Part of the 264 Tests provided by PT)

INSTRUCTIONS

1. Keep only the ID Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place indicated by the invigilator.

2. This test contains three sections which examine various abilities. There are 25 questions in Section I, 25 questions in Section II and 25 questions in Section III. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all the three sections.

3. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions. There is only one correct answer to each question.

4. All questions carry four marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one mark.

5. Do your rough work only on the test booklet and NOT on the answer sheet.

6. Revising and analysing your performance after the test is over is critical to your improved performance in the next test(s). A positive attitude to revise, analyse and learn from mistakes will be a great plus.

.

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Section I

Directions for 3 Questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

PASSAGE

For as long as we have been impressed by our understanding and control of the material world, scientists and philosophers of science have tried to specify just what distinguishes successful modern science from such dead ends as trying to produce gold from stone or reading our future in the stars. Unfortunately all such attempts have failed to produce unambiguous lines of demarcation, and, when we have looked closely at what real scientists actually do, we often find that the working life of science fails to match the picture painted by the philosophers. Nonetheless, we can list a series of characteristics that are more likely to be found in astronomy than astrology, for example. While we cannot with absolute certainty divide ideas about the material world into science and pseudo­science, we can still profitably talk about things being 'more or less' scientific.

A good starting point is to assert that any good scientific theory should be internally consistent. This immediately separates it from much of what passes for lay reasoning. My mother contradicted herself more often than not. That something she said one moment was incompatible with her next pronouncement hardly ever troubled her. She once criticized a roadside café by asserting that the food was vile and the portions were too small!

A good scientific theory should accord with the evidence. This may seem obvious, but what the scientist should demand in this respect is considerably more rigorous than that which the lay person habitually accepts. Very different standards operate, for example, in conventional and in alternative medicine. Although driven by commercial imperatives to get their new wonder drugs to the market before those of their rivals, pharmaceutical companies subject their products to lengthy and extensive trials. In 'double­blind' testing, large numbers of patients are divided into test and control groups. One group is given the new drug; the other a harmless and inert 'placebo'. Until the allocations are revealed at the end of the trials, neither patients nor doctors know who is getting the real drug and who the placebo. Only if the test sample shows a marked improvement over the placebo group is the trial accepted as good evidence of the effectiveness of the drug. In contrast, alternative therapies such as faith healing, acupuncture or magneto­therapy are rarely tested; the personal experience of the practitioner, supported by a few anecdotes of miracle cures, is taken to be sufficient to establish effectiveness. Such testing as takes place is never double­blind, and thus the possibility that any perceived benefits result from a placebo effect is never eliminated.

Thirdly, science constantly changes. Its findings are never 'true' in an absolute now­and­ forever sense; they are always provisional and can always be improved. The convincing orthodoxy of one century becomes the historical curiosity of the next. It is a little awkward to say that science makes progress, because we do not know where we are going, but we certainly know where we have been and can thus talk about science gradually moving away from error. Again we can see the point if we contrast the reliance of medical science on experimental proof with the reliance of alternative therapies on tradition. In the world of Bachian flower remedies, Feng Sui, and Shiatsu massage, that something has been done for centuries (preferably in a culture untainted by modernity) establishes its validity. Given that

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such fundamentals of medical science as the body's circulatory system are relatively recent discoveries, the scientist is rightly not impressed by the age of an idea.

1. According to the passage, which one of the following is true? (Q. code ­ 102202001) (1) One can only say that the more we follow science, the more we move away from

errors. (2) One can state that the more we move away from errors, the more we follow science. (3) Science looks for errors in the established understanding of the common man. (4) The age of an idea alone is the characteristic that determines the value of it in the

scientist's mind. (5) The age of an idea alone is the characteristic that does not determine the value of it in

the scientist's mind.

2. "The convincing orthodoxy of one century becomes the historical curiosity of the next." What does the author mean by this line? (Q. code ­ 102202002) (1) What is new today will be stale tomorrow. (2) With time, even the most rigid ideas lose their strength. (3) Thoughts have a strange way of dying. Actually, they don't die. (4) The more fixated a thought, the faster it will lose its sway. (5) The importance of a thought is determined not by its popularity, but only by its

popularity.

3. Why does the author call his mother as indulging in lay reasoning? (Q. code ­ 102202003) (1) His mother contradicted herself more often than not. (2) His mother's reasoning was similar to a layman's reasoning. (3) When she criticized food from a diner, she didn't sound convincing. (4) Her reasoning wasn't consistent throughout. (5) She gave the most irrelevant reasons for her conclusions.

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Directions for 3 Questions: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

4. (A) When we got in line to walk to the metal detector on our boarding gate, (B) we found ourselves standing behind (C) three broad­shouldered, mustachioed Lebanese man. (D) As each stepped through the metal detector, (E) they would erupt with a buzz and a flashing red light, like a pin ball machine about to

tilt. (Q. code ­ 102202004) (1) C & E (2) A, B and D (3) E only (4) A & D (5) B & D

5. (A) After this 'Duisenberg disaster', the issue disappears (B) from people's minds, it got transformed into an annual (C) debate in indexation and the topic of discussion became (D) the level of benefits for the needy. (E) In 2009 Holland still suffers the consequences. (Q. code ­ 102202005)

(1) A, B & E (2) B, C & E (3) B & D (4) E only (5) B only

6. (A) The whole science of classical economics has been built up (B) on the basis of simplifying assumptions about humanly (C) behaviour that have enabled scholars to developing models, (D) theories and causal generalizations based on technical (E) concept that are peculiar to the discipline. (Q. code ­ 102202006)

(1) A, B & D (2) B, C & D (3) A & D (4) B only (5) D only

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Directions for 3 Questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

PASSAGE

1794­­here at last was a year which I felt was going to compensate me by some diverting activities, some inspiration, pleasure, for much that I had missed and suffered in the preceding years; and goodness knows I was badly in need of it.' This is how Goethe, in his Annals, begins his report on the year 1794. The modern reader can hardly fail to respond to Goethe's catalogue of grievances: the agitated restlessness of Europe; rumours of the approach of the enemy and of fussy aunts evacuated from more directly disturbed areas; the hasty selling of houses, the loss of friends through political partisanship; the clandestine distribution of French revolutionary manifestoes­­'they even found their way to me,' Goethe exclaims, 'and this through people whom one would never have suspected'; and above all the rule of Robespierre, 'the terrors of which had so deprived the world of any sense of joy that nobody felt like rejoicing even at the downfall of the tyrant. And in addition, the distressing chaos, the obstreperous hollowness of the German literary scene! Goethe had returned from Italy with that vision of serenity and equipoise with which he hoped he would conquer the national imagination which he had previously done so much to fill with unruly enthusiasm for suicidal lovers and rebellious knights with fists of iron. But, alas, while the Master recuperated sun of the South, the infection, the cold and the fever, were spread by his disciples in the unregenerate nordic climate. There was, for instance, that man Schiller, this 'vigorous but immature talent', as Goethe calls him, whose drama Die Räuber, 'disgusted me in the extreme', because he poured out over the country, in a gushing, irresistible torrent, precisely those moral and theatrical paradoxes which I had striven to eradicate from my own work'. And there were more such offenders: Heinse, for instance, whose Ardinghello was hateful to Goethe because its author used his art for the purpose of 'giving affected glamour to crass sensuality and abstruse modes of thought. 'I was terrified,' Goethe continues, 'by the hubbub they caused in the country, and by the applause with which the monstrous creations of their fancy were received by wild undergraduates and genteel ladies of the court alike.' 'Imagine the state I was in! I had hoped to cultivate and to communicate the purest ideas; and now I found myself squeezed tight between Ardinghello and Franz Moor.' 'It seemed as though all my labours would be lost, all the things towards which, and all the ways in which, I had educated myself would be abolished and frustrated.' Goethe's intense dissatisfaction, his conviction of futility, culminates in the wish to abandon 'the contemplation of the arts and the practice of poetry altogether'­­ and we know that this was more than the fleeting whim of a disgruntled Olympian­­'for there appeared to be no chance whatsoever to compete with those wild productions of disorganized genius'.

Yet Goethe's desolation was caused not merely by the unseemly behaviour of the world around him; there was an inner uncertainty too­­an uncertainty which, in one form or another, was to provide the rest of his life with a deep dilemma, a source of inspiration as well as confusion, now raising his poetry and thought to those heights to which only the force of tension could carry them, now again trapping his genius in a tangle of insoluble contradictions. His doubts about the worth­whileness, indeed the possibility, of continuing his work as a poet will recur, and the blame will not always fall on the Robespierres of this world and other poets' successful Robbers. Now, in the year 1794, the dilemma took this form: 'The conflict which my scientific efforts had brought into my life was as yet by no means resolved; for my dealings with nature began to make claims on all my inner faculties'.

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7. What were the reasons for Goethe's desolation? (Q. code ­ 102202007) (1) The unfailing attempts of the German literary amateurs at that time to faze out

Goethe's achievements. (2) The quandary of his times that caught him in its fullest viz. the political turmoil and the

uneasiness spread throughout the land. (3) The desperation that was caused due to his inability to change the literary scene

which at one time he had so magnificently ruled. (4) The hopeless situation of being trapped in a literary scenario that he was totally

uncomfortable with and also his own qualms about the importance of his poetry. (5) The internal rifts that were causing him to doubt his success after returning from a far­

off land.

8. What were the objections that Goethe had against Schiller and Heinse? (Q. code ­ 102202008) (1) The works created by them were a disgrace to the development of the society as they

overdid the play on emotions. (2) They were spreading ideas that weren't of the purest nature and this was something

that Goethe didn't esteem highly. (3) He was astounded by the popularity achieved in all sections of the society by these

poets. (4) The use of literary styles of exemplifying sensuality, abstruse modes of thinking was

something that he couldn't keep pace with. (5) He didn't value their works because of the amoral conduct of the protagonists that was

liked by all parts of the society.

9. 'for there appeared to be … of disorganized genius'. What does the author mean here? (Q. code ­ 102202009) (1) In no way could Goethe counter the works of the people who were unmindful of their

own actions. (2) Goethe's thoughts about discontinuing his work had a strong reason that he couldn't

have countered the unruly works with his lofty ideals. (3) The manner in which the poets created verse was an unorganized one and had the

failings of a sinister nature. (4) Goethe was hard put against the different styles of his contemporaries and seemed to

be fighting a lost case. (5) The poets like Schiller were unaware that what they produced created competition of

such an immense magnitude.

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Directions for 3 Questions: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

10. Yet Mr. Kundera's title (Testaments Betrayed) also refers to the many diverse things that can betray art as a testament. He includes, for instance, the translators who have failed to respect Kafka's use of word repetition and who insist on showing off their skills by exercising "the synonymizing reflex ­­ a reflex of nearly all translators." He includes critics who in reading works of literature drag in irrelevant judgments of their authors. He means readers in general "who look for a position (political, philosophical, religious, whatever) in a work of art rather than searching it for an effort to know, to understand, to grasp this or that aspect of reality." (Q. code ­ 102202010) (1) Anything that violates the autonomy of art. (2) If not for this habit of his, the essay would have been a success. (3) Yet his concern is not so much with the freedom of artists as with the autonomy of

what they create. (4) So long as we don't betray it. (5) As Mr. Kundera sees it, shameful objectification is what threatens all of us in the near

future.

11. It is understandable why so many have been so jealous of the image's influence. Sight is our most powerful sense, much more dominant in translating influence than taste, touch or hearing. And images appeal to emotions ­ often viscerally so. They claim our attention without uttering a word. They can persuade, repel or charm us. They can be absorbed instantly and easily by anyone who can see. (Q. code ­ 102202011) (1) They are much better than text and that requires no proof. (2) They seem to speak for themselves. (3) Mind you, not only the individual, but the world too seems to justify that. (4) Their sense of appraisal leads to diminished expectations. (5) Anyone who says no to this reasoning has a flawed understanding of the world.

12.The plan calls for a green light on the tower to tell visitors when the windmill is producing power, and a red light that will indicate that power is being purchased from the grid. If there is a power outage in the utility's network, the windmill shuts down automatically. (Q. code ­ 102202012) (1) A manual operation of the windmill is therefore undesirable. (2) "Better this than the plan you spoke of." told Emily. (3) "We don't want to electrocute people working on the lines." explains Finlayson. (4) To begin the system, you need to allow manipulations. (5) The outage may be indicative of a situation where one may think it likely to shut down

the network.

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Directions for 3 Questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

PASSAGE

Despite the conjectures of Descartes and LeMettrie, the phenomenon of life seemed for a long time to deny the dispiriting ramifications of Newtonian determinism and reductionism. The incredible order and complexity of life seemed incompatible with the simple deterministic laws of physics: from whence this complexity? The processes of biology are so finely coordinated, so tightly coupled, that it seemed in the 17th century (and still seems to many to this day) that life must be designed and orchestrated by some superior outside intelligence. Furthermore, the growth and spontaneous movement of living beings does not in any obvious way reflect simple, mechanical laws like the conservation of momentum. We do not behave as mere masses subject to forces, but initiate action on our own. Intuition tells us that this animation, this spontaneous movement and growth, is a key feature of life. Thales recognized as much in the 7th century BCE when he said, "The lodestone has life, or soul, as it is able to move iron", as did Aristotle in associating life with movement ("The soul creates movement"). As recently as the 19th century, the Vitalists articulated the same intuition, that only some elan vital could produce life's spontaneity in a universe of dead matter.

To make the Newtonian world view work, some explanation was necessary of how purposeful, animated, complex life forms could emerge from dead chemicals.

The original mechanical conception of life­heart as pump, lungs as bellows­was spectacularly unsuccessful in explaining much more than the circulation of the blood (and actually, not even that). It was only in the 19th century, with the work of Mendel and Darwin, that there was any real progress reconciling the simplicity of physics and chemistry with the seeming animation and purpose of Nature. By the end of the 20th century the sciences of molecular biology and genetics purported to provide, if not a solution, at least the outline of a solution to all the fundamental mysteries of life, from its origin, to its evolution, to its present behavior. Not coincidentally, the Grand Synthesis of Darwinian evolution and Mendelian genetics solved these problems in a way that reinforced the defining ideologies of our civilization: the discrete and separate self, the program to control the world, the primacy of competition as an agent of progress, and the destiny of humankind to eventually transcend nature through technology.

At present, the dominant understanding of change in nature is Neodarwinism, which Lynn Margulis has summarized as "an attempt to reconcile Mendelian genetics, which says that organisms do not change with time, with Darwinism, which claims they do." In Mendelian genetics, variation within a species comes only from recombination of existing DNA, which denies the possibility of genuinely new traits ever emerging. However, overwhelming evidence from paleontology, embryology, genetics, and other fields make it clear that life indeed evolves over time, and that genuinely new features arise repeatedly across the eons.

Neodarwinism ascribes the source of this change to random mutation, and its direction to natural selection: the competition for the resources to survive and reproduce. Biological evolution is supposed to happen through a gradual accumulation of random point mutations, frameshift errors, accidental deletions and insertions, and other chance alterations to DNA, which are then "tried out" (expressed in actual organisms) in various combinations. Most

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mutations are either deadly or harmless, but occasionally one of them will create some new characteristic which confers a competitive advantage, enabling the new organism and its descendants to dominate the old in its ecological niche, or to occupy a new niche altogether. Over time, the accumulation of these new characteristics comes to define a new species.

The traditional view of biology is that the self is the "expression of the genes", which comprise the blueprint for morphology and the underlying determinant of behavior. Only in humans, it is thought, does the countervailing determinant of culture (sometimes) override or at least modify genetic "programming". This is an old idea in new garb­in an earlier age it was not "genetic programming" but rather our "bestial nature", "original sin", or "the temptations of the flesh". Either way, the conclusion is the same that we are, with the rise of culture, transcending nature. We are transcending our biology and rising to a new state, a uniquely human realm. To engineer an organism, then, is really just a matter of engineering its genes, whose properties are fundamentally isolable from the environment. The conception of the genes as the blueprint and program for the organism therefore abets the program of control as well as identifying them as the kernel of the biological self.

13. With which of the following statements would Newton agree the most? (Q. code ­ 102202013) (1) We can understand the world, even all of nature, by examining smaller and smaller

pieces of it. When these smaller pieces are assembled, it would explain the whole picture.

(2) Only simple mechanical laws can help us comprehend our human biology. (3) An unbroken chain of prior occurrences casually determines human cognition,

behavior, decision and action. (4) Life processes arise from or contain a nonmaterial vital principle and cannot be

explained entirely as a physical or chemical phenomenon. (5) There is indeed a superior intelligence like god, who is the creator of all the things and

his manifestations can be understood with due diligence.

14. Which of the following statements concur with Neo­Darwinism? (Q. code ­ 102202014) (1) Organisms never change with time, it is only their perception of the environment that

makes them feel the mutations. (2) As humans know that change is the only constant in this world, so the various

alterations in the DNA sequence are in accordance to the rule. (3) With time, to better the existing milieu, various permutations and combinations

between the existing DNA sequence lead to the evolution of human species. (4) Culture and the ever­changing human psychology leads to the changes in genetic

programming of humans. (5) Fields like paleontology, embryology, genetics are posited on random mutation and

natural selection.

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15. Identify how many false statements are there among the following? (Q. code ­ 102202015) A. Neo­Darwinism assumes that the properties of the genes can be isolated from the

environment in which the organism dwells. B. All but few mutations are innocuous and lead to the development of new traits in

organisms. C. Newton's world view is espoused by the evidences from paleontology, embryology,

genetics. D. According to the vitalists, intuition is the vital impetus to sustaining the growth of

human beings. (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) All are false (5) All are true

Directions for 3 Questions: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

I have been looking at the social implications of the Internet and network societies since the early 90s. It was about how we structure the basic rules of control over the core productive resources of our economy, as a way of structuring both economy and society. I stumbled across, by mistake, the beginnings of questions of law with regard to the Net and suddenly understood that I was looking at a major decision point 150 years ago, but in fact we're at a major decision point now. These are the core resources that will decide who has economic power, who has social power, who has political power and what are the modalities of organization.

The decision point is whether we will have a much more radically distributed capacity to create knowledge, information and culture, and participate in the creation of knowledge, information and culture, or whether we will have a replicated and only slightly different industrial structure to information and knowledge production. So that late 19th and throughout the 20th century model, we very much follow an industrial model, relatively highly capitalized in contractual and hierarchical relationships within firms, be it the big five accounting firms, be it the old IBM, be it AT&T, be it the Hollywood movie studios, based very much on the sale of information and culture as goods, with a relatively concentrated industry and a small number of players controlling a relatively limited set of creators. A very stark separation between producers and consumers, with consumers conceived as relatively passive and watching culture.

Where we are now, and we already know that we are there, is in a much more permeable and fluid society and a much more permeable cultural environment where the difference between producers and consumers is blurred. This category of users has become absolutely central to everything we do. So when we talk about newspapers, we have to think about the users who communicate with a commercial organization like TPM, the users who basically get together and make their own new party presses, like DailyKos or Townhall, like the users who make up YouTube, like the users who make up Wikipedia. Suddenly you have radically decentralized practical capacity to act. And what do people do? They act.

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They use chunks of time, particularly chunks of time that they used to spend watching passively finished goods as entertainment, in an activity that's a social activity and a creative activity and an expressive activity on a very large scale. This is tilting all of our information, knowledge and cultural industries something between a quarter and two­thirds of the way around. Because in addition, government will continue to fund some science, some arts, et cetera. Commercial organizations will continue to do the same thing. Individual selling in markets will, but also social production now comes in as a major force. And that re­aligns in different industries more, in different industries less.

But the decision point is essentially which of these worlds we go. And it's a decision point we're making through law. The copyright wars are a classic instance of trying to set up the technology and the legal environment in such a way that you can keep the horse in the barn, and rent it out for rides, as opposed to having all the horses out. Situations where you get digital rights management and criminalization of breaking or distributing things that overcome digital rights management. That's a place where you see law playing catch­up against the technology that doesn't want to be there, or that isn't going there in any particular way.

16. According to the author, what has changed in the user's viewing of entertainment? (Q. code ­ 102202016) (1) The passiveness has been destroyed and the users everywhere are participating in

the creation of art. (2) The interactive use of medium like the Internet has provided users the privilege to

break away from the passiveness and contribute in the development of art. (3) Internet activities have liberated users and more cross­cultural activities allow for the

growth of an all­encompassing ideology. (4) Wherever the problems are, they are being turned on their heads by the use of

medium like Internet. (5) Users are making decisions that are affecting the sales and production of forms of art.

17. What is meant by the blurring of the difference between consumer and producer? (Q. code ­ 102202017) (1) The market has been opened up to allow seamless distribution of ideas. (2) The works of one person have become the property of everyone. (3) Intellectual property rights have loopholes that allow for free consumption of otherwise

copyrighted products. (4) The consumer is the producer now and vice­versa. (5) The producer allows for free as well as close­to­free products that delineate the

market factors.

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18. How has community work fared on the business front? (Q. code ­ 102202018) (1) It has surpassed individual accomplishments and alongwith corporation spending is

the most important way of generating ideas. (2) Along with corporation spending, community efforts have striven to give better results

as the Government spendings have flown in. (3) It has become a major factor for growth of the market, stepping alongside government

spendings, corporation business as well as individual efforts. (4) It has come head­to­head with IPR issues and thus has become a bottleneck for the

growth of innovative ideas. (5) It is brilliant in its approach towards societal inclusiveness, but has lost on the front

that it is unreliable.

Directions for 3 Questions: Each question is a logical sequence of statements with a missing link, the location of which is shown parenthetically [(....)]. From the five options available, choose the one that best fits into the sequence.

19. From time to time, we passed solitary women trudging through the water near the shoreline, pulling nets behind them as they trawled for prawn seed. This practice, introduced in the past twenty years or so, has disastrously reduced prawn and other fish populations, and the constant pacing along the fragile shore by the women and children who drag the nets has contributed to erosion. [........] As many as ten fatal crocodile attacks are documented each year, and, I was told, too many shark attacks to report. The most common are by dog sharks, which take a bite of soft tissue­a leg or buttock­but do not kill. "They are considered minor hazards," Dr. Sanyal said, with a sympathetic grimace. The Sundarbans' occupational hazards­crocodiles, sharks, cobras, kraits, swimming tigers, and cyclones­make it one of the most dangerous places in the world. (Q. code ­ 102202019) (1) In their flowing saris, the women presented picturesque silhouettes that belied the

danger of their work, up to ten hours a day waist high in the murky water. (2) No one stops them as the people themselves are forced to do the dirty work to earn a

daily livelihood. (3) "If the Sundarbans goes under, the tiger episode on earth is over," Kushal said, a

belief shared by many authorities. (4) In recent years, the tides have become more menacing, as the sea levels have

climbed inexorably. (5) The hazards notwithstanding, the work has to be accomplished.

20. Walter Benjamin once said that every great work dissolves a genre or founds a new one. [……..] What if a writer had written several works that rose to Benjamin's high definition, not all great, perhaps, but so different from one another, so peculiar to their author, and so inimitable that each founded its own, immediately self­dissolving genre? (Q. code ­ 102202020) (1) This is the opportunity that every innovation awaits. (2) The magnum opus of every artist has to await its saviour. (3) But is it only masterpieces that have a monopoly on novelty? (4) But what if the world knew the thing beforehand? (5) Thus, the opportune moment lies in wait of the artist's signal.

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21. Curbing the excesses of wealth, then, will be a side effect of regulations designed to make capitalism work better. Such measures will not provide the lyrics to revolutionary anthems, but they are going to be better than going after the wealthy. [……..] But when you try to bash them, you usually end up punching yourself in the nose. (Q. code ­ 102202021) (1) The rich are certainly not the only targets in the current populist backlash. (2) The market's self­correction will not be enough, however. (3) Indeed, the system is already beginning to correct itself. (4) The rich are an easy target. (5) Inequality will decline.

Directions for 4 Questions: In each question, there are five sentences. The sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.

22. A. A second feature that we believe must be part of any ultimate theory is Einstein's idea that the gravitational field is represented by curved space­time.

B. Particles try to follow the nearest thing to a straight path in a curved space but because space­time is not flat, their paths appear to be bent as if by a gravitational field.

C. When we apply Feynman's sum over histories to Einstein's view of gravity, the analogue of the history of a particle is now a complete curve space­time that represents the history of the whole universe.

D. To avoid the technical difficulties in actually performing the sum over histories, these curved space­time must be taken to be Euclidean.

E. That is, time is imaginary, and is indistinguishable from direction­space. (Q. code ­ 102202022) (1) BACDE (2) DBECA (3) BDCAE (4) CAEBD (5) EDCAB

23. A. Yet, just as the banking system created a market for capital and the insurance industry created a market for risk, the growth of patent system maybe creating a market for innovation.

B. As the patent system has matured and licensing has become much more widespread, these transfers are turning business relationships on their heads.

C. The creation of any market takes time and trouble and when such an institution develops, those outside the system feel threatened by it and condemn it.

D. Semiconductors, the silicon chips that power digital devices, are typically designed by specialist firms that are good at engineering but physically produced by other firms whose expertise lies in manufacturing.

E. Some economists argue that the growth of patent transactions is establishing a proper "market by technology". (Q. code ­ 102202023) (1) BADEC (2) CABDE (3) CEBAD (4) DBECA (5) BCADE

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24. A. But a study of the tribes of ISAF, the NATO­led force in Afghanistan, might be just as important to win the war.

B. Western soldiers in Afghanistan are by necessity becoming amateur anthropologists. C. What would it conclude? D. The Americans, in fact, have even hired a few of the professional sort to help them

understand tribal dynamics in the wild provinces of Afghanistan. E. The different shades and patterns of fatigues, headwear and eating habits in the

Kabul headquarters suggest complex intermixing. (Q. code ­ 102202024) (1) ECBDA (2) ABDCE (3) BDACE (4) DABCE (5) EDBCA

25. A. The Whitechapel Anarchist Group, whom we had emailed about interviewing, fail to answer their phone (too busy preparing to spread mayhem if other press reports are to be believed, though their blog huffily decries these accounts).

B. Frustrated, we head toward London Bridge where one of the marches is due to start. C. HBOS and Halifax both sport locked doors, but security guards prevent us from

filming. D. At 7 am, the City is quiet. Work traffic is light for a weekday, and my camera­wielding

colleague and I are keen to get shots of the City prepared for protests, so set off looking for banks and offices that have shut for the day.

E. Our day of covering the protests starts with a failure. (Q. code ­ 102202025) (1) EDACB (2) ADBEC (3) EADCB (4) ECBDA (5) AEBCD

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Section II

Directions for 2 Questions: For the following questions, five options are given. Choose the correct option.

26. R is a rectangular floor completely covered with square tiles of identical size. The tiles are of 2 colours: Red and Blue. The tiles on the edge of the floor are red and those in the interior are blue. There are twice as many blue tiles as red tiles. What is the number of tiles on any one of the edges of R? (Q. code ­ 102202026) (1) 30 (2) 18 (3) 27 (4) 28 (5) More than one of the above values

27. Given: a, b and c are integers such that 4 < a < 6, 6 < b < 15 and 16 < c < 20.

What can be the largest integral value of ab c

b + 2

? (Q. code ­ 102202027) (1) 40 (2) 36 (3) 71 (4) 41 (5) 70

Directions for 2 Questions: For an integer y, a function f(y) is defined as the sum of (n+1) terms, as given below, where n is a positive integer greater than 4.

f(y) = |y| + |y + 10| + |y + 20| + .................... + |y + 10(n ­ 1)| + |y + 10n|

28. If n = 8, what is the minimum value of f(y)? (Q. code ­ 102202028) (1) 260 (2) 250 (3) 220 (4) 210 (5) 200

29. For a given odd value of n, for how many values of y is f(y) = minimum? (Q. code ­ 102202029) (1) 11 (2) 15 (3) 08 (4) 16 (5) 14

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Directions for 3 Questions: For the following questions, five options are given. Choose the correct option.

30. Let a1, a2, …, a7 and N be integers such that a1 + a2 × 10 + a3 × 102+…+ a7 × 106 = N and a1 × 106 + a2 × 105 +…+ a7 = 3N. Which of the following can be the sum of digit of N? (Q. code ­ 102202030) (1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 5 (4) 7 (5) Cannot be determined

31. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 32, 36 and 40 days respectively. A and B started the work but after two days, A left the job and C joined B and both of them continued the job for next 4 days when C left the job. Now A again joined B and they continued to do the work together but B left the job just 2 days before the actual completion of the job. In how many days the work was completed?(Note: A and B like each other, so whenever they work together, B’s efficiency increases by 20%) (Q. code ­ 102202031)

(1) 15 23

95 (2) 16 23

31

(3) 17 23

93 (4) 18 23

94

(5) 17 1

2

32. If a, b and c are positive real numbers, such that c 2 = a 2 + b 2 – ab, α = Min(a, b), β = Max(a, b) then which of the following is true? (Q. code ­ 102202032) (1) α > c (2) c > α (3) α £ c £ β (4) c > β (5) Cannot be determined

Directions for 2 Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the rectangle ABCD, BD is a diagonal. AE and CF are the shortest possible distance of the diagonal from the vertices A and C respectively. Areas of triangle

ADE and AEF are in the ratio 2:5.Area of the rectangle ABCD is 100 14 2 cm

33. What is the perimeter of the rectangle ABCD? (Q. code ­ 102202033)

(1) 20 7 2 + e j (2)

10 7 2 + e j

(3) 20 7 2 − e j (4)

10 7 2 − e j (5) None of these

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34. Find the length AF (Q. code ­ 102202034)

(1) 10 39 e j (2)

5 39 e j

(3) 20 39 e j (4)

10 39 3 e j /

(5) 15 39 4 e j /

Directions: For the following questions, five options are given. Choose the correct option.

35. The solution to the equation 3 3 2 3 log log a a X X + = is given by (Q. code ­ 102202035) (1) 3 2 log a (2) −2 3 log a

(3) − − 2 3 log a (4) a − log 2 3

(5) None of these

36. The ratio of the marked price to the cost price of a mobile is 5 : 4 .The discount percentage offered before it was sold and the profit /loss percentage made on it were in the ratio 3 : 4. Find the profit/loss percentage. (Q. code ­ 102202036) (1) 14.48% (2) 12.90% (3) 13.8% (4) 17.65% (5) Cannot be determined

37. Given that a, b, c are in continued proportion; b, c, d are in continued proportion; and c, d, e are also in continued proportion. If b : c = 3 : 4 and all the five numbers are positive integers, what is the minimum possible value of (a + b + e)? (Q. code ­ 102202037) (1) 444 (2) 445 (3) 592 (4) 492 (5) Cannot be possible

38. Let a : b = 1 : 2; c : d = 3 : 4; e : f = 3 : 8; g : h = 5 : 7 and i : j = 7 : 8 Given that all ratios are unequal, then the value of (a + c + e + g + i)/ (b + d + f + h + j) can be between? (Q. code ­ 102202038) (1) 0.4 to 0.9 (2) 0.35 to 0.85 (3) 0.375 to 0.875 (4) 0.33 to 0.74 (5) 0.95 to 0.75

39. There are 16 intermediate stations between two junctions A and B .In how many different ways can a metro train have stoppages at 3 different stations between A and B such that no two stations are consecutive (including the junctions A and B) ? (Q. code ­ 102202039) (1) 220 (2) 330 (3) 240 (4) 190 (5) 440

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40. X 1 , X 2 , X 3 , X 4 are real numbers where X 1 and X 2 are the roots of x 2 – kx + 60 = 0 and

X 3 and X 4 are the roots of the equation x 2 – 9x + k = 0, which of the following can be the value of k? (Q. code ­ 102202040) (1) 19.4 (2) 14.9 (3) 12 (4) All of the values of (1), (2) and (3) (5) Any two values of (1), (2) or (3)

41. PQRS is a parallelogram and X is its center. A line AB passes through X such that A and B lie on the sides PQ and RS. L and M are the midpoints of the sides AQ and BR. Find the ratio of the areas of quadrilaterals LQRM and PQRS. (1) ¼ (2) ½ (3) 1/6 (4) 1/8 (5) Cannot be determined

42. If f x x x x x x ( ) log ( ) log ( ) log ( ) log ( ) log ( ) = − + − + 21 3 5 48 2 9 2 24 10 40 , find the minimum possible value of f(x). (Q. code ­ 102202042) (1) 54 (2) 34 (3) 42 (4) 56 (5) 48

Directions for the Questions 43 and 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

There are three places in Mumbai: Andheri, Bandra and Kurla, not on the same straight track. Two local trains A and B start simultaneously from Andheri and Bandra respectively towards Kurla. By the time B reaches Kurla, A is exactly halfway to Kurla. Immediately after B reaches Kurla, it starts traveling towards Andheri and it crosses A at a point 33 km from Andheri. The ratio of the speeds of A and B is 3:5. Assume that the track joining Andheri to Kurla, Bandra to Kurla and Bandra to Andheri are all straight tracks.

43. If initially, instead of moving towards Kurla, A and B start moving towards each other, which of the following cannot be a possible distance (in km) from Andheri at which they will cross each other? (Q. code ­ 102202043) (1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 24 (4) 36 (5) None of these

44. If Bandra is twice as far from Andheri as it is from Kurla, and A takes 2 2 3 hours to cover

the distance from Andheri to Bandra ,how much time(in hours) would B take to cover the distance from Kurla to Andheri? (Q. code ­ 102202044)

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(1) 1.92 (2) 0.96 (3) 3.4 (4) 0.75 (5) 1.70

Directions for 2 Questions: For the following questions, five options are given. Choose the correct option.

45. What is the value of (666666………n digits) 2 +(88888888………n digits)? (Q. code ­ 102202045)

(1) 4 9 10 1 2 / n − b g (2) 8 9 10 1 2 / n − b g

(3) 3 4 10 1 2 / n + b g (4) 4 3 10 1 3 / n + b g (5) None of these

46. S = 19, 30, 41, 52………….657, 668. Set A is defined as all terms in S, which are co­ prime with 60. Find m, where m = number of terms in A. (Q. code ­ 102202046) (1) 21 (2) 20 (3) 17 (4) 18 (5) 16

Directions for 4 Questions: Each question is followed by two statements, 1 and 2. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement 1 alone but not by using the statement 2 alone. Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement 2 alone but not by using the statement 1 alone. Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

47. If x and y are single­digit natural numbers, then what is the greatest common divisor of x and y? (Q. code ­ 102202047) (1) x is odd and y is even

(2) 15(2x 2 –y 2 ) =7xy

48. Given, x, y and z are natural numbers such that 2x + 5y + 10z = 50. What is the value of y? (Q. code ­ 102202048) (1) The value of y is not more than the value of z. (2) The value of z is two.

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49. Is c an even prime number?(It is known that a,b,c and d are distinct prime numbers) (Q. code ­ 102202049) (1) 7a+4b–5c is an odd integer. (2) 4d+13a+5b–4c is an even integer.

50. Five countries India, Pakistan, New Zealand, Australia and England participated in the Women’s World Cup­2009. They were ranked based on their previous performances. Australia got a higher rank as compared to England while Pakistan got a higher rank as compared to New Zealand. New Zealand's rank was lower than the median. Who among the five got the highest rank? (Q. code ­ 102202050) (1) India was the last rank holder. (2) Pakistan was not among the top two rank holders.

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Section III

Directions for 4 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow. Data given in one question can be used as additional information in all subsequent questions.

Crystal Technologies is a big player in the consultancy space. The strength of the organization are the teams that they create to complete projects. However there are some constraints on the creation of teams: (1) Each Project should have at least one Team Lead and one Analyst. (2) A team consists only of Team Lead(s) and Analyst(s). (3) Each team member is awarded some points everyday, which he/she can use at

food outlets in the campus or even donate them.

During the CSR initiative week in the company, each of the seven teams decided to donate some points everyday for the whole working week (Monday to Friday). They also decided to create some basic rules (companies have rules for everything, most of them absolutely absurd, but still you have to go about playing "by the rules"). They are as under: (1) Every Team Lead can donate only 2 or 3 points everyday. (2) Every Analyst can donate only 1 or 2 points everyday. (3) All individuals across all projects have to donate everyday. (4) Out of the five days, on exactly two days, all members of the team must donate

only 2 points each, and these two days (pair) must be different for all teams. (5) On the other three days, the combination of the contribution of the Team

Lead(s) and Analyst(s) in every team must be different as compared to other two days.

As a beginning, the Ace project Team decided to use Monday and Tuesday to implement Rule 4, Ranbaxy project Team decided to use Tuesday and Wednesday to implement the same. And SeeShaw project Team decided to use Tuesday and Thursday to implement rule 4. The week as it went is shown under:

Teams Number of members Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Total Points

Ace 10

Ranbaxy 3 32

Day Time 6 8 8

Kanbay 12 7 10 9

Sameera 44

SeeShaw 12 60

LabShow 12 56

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51. If the maximum points that are contributed by the Ace project Team on any day of the week is 14 on Friday, what is the minimum number of points they collected? (Q. code ­ 102202051) (1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 9 (4) 13 (5) 8

52. Find the number of members in the Kanbay project Team? (Q. code ­ 102202052) (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) Option (2) and (3) both are possible (5) None of the above

53. How much did the Day Time project team collect in the week? (Q. code ­ 102202053) (1) 40 (2) 46 (3) 32 (4) 36 (5) 42

54. What is the minimum amount that SeeShaw team contributes on any day of the week? (Q. code ­ 102202054) (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10 (5) 11

Directions for 4 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:­

A deck of playing cards is arranged in such an order that the first card is King of spade, second Queen of spade, then Jack of spade & so on up to ace of spade.Below them King of diamond up to ace of Diamond, then King of club up to ace of club, then King of heart up to Ace of heart.

There are 4 players: Shalini, Sneha, Rumi, & Ritu. Seating arrangement: There is a round table in a room and Ritu is sitting facing north. Shalini is sitting west of Ritu and Sneha is sitting west of Shalini. On the remaining seat Rumi is sitting. Dealing rule: Firstly, we have to distribute 1 card to each player starting from Shalini in the clockwise direction. Then 2 cards to each, then 3 cards to each, then 4 to each and then again 3 cards to each. Partner: the person sitting opposite to each other are partners. To determine the "card value", the players follow the following suit values:­ SPADE ­ 4 CLUB ­ 3 DIAMOND ­ 2 HEART ­ 1

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To get the "card value", add the "suit value" with the "face value" of the card, wherein the face value of King = 13, QUEEN = 12, JACK = 11, and so on till ACE = 1. For example, the card value of 10 of club is = suit value of club + face value of 10 = 3 + 10 = 13 Passing rule clockwise direction until otherwise mentioned: t The person who has most number of kings called player number 1 passes the card

that has the highest "card value" to the person sitting next to him called player number 2.

t Player number 2 passes the card with the minimum card value to the person sitting next to him (called player 3).

t Player number 3 passes the card with maximum card value to the person sitting next to him (called player 4).

t Player number 4 passes the card which has minimum card value to the person sitting next to him (player number 1) and the round goes on in similar fashion.

t If Rumi receives the king of spades in any round, the mode of transfer changes from clockwise to counter­clockwise or vice ­versa thereafter that round.

t If in any round the players get equal number of kings, then the game gets over.

If there are two/more cards with equal "card value" then we pass the card with the highest face value.

55. After which round, does the game gets over? (Q. code ­ 102202055) (1) 2nd (2) 3rd (3) 5th (4) 10th (5) Never

56. When the game gets over; the partners add the face value of card and if the sum of face value of spade cards of a team is greater than 50, then that team is the winner of the game. So which team wins? (Q. code ­ 102202056) (1) Shalini & Sneha (2) Shalini & Rumi (3) Sneha & Ritu (4) Sneha & Rumi (5) This condition is not possible as game never ends.

57. For how many rounds Rumi had the cards which had face value greater than 3 but less than 12? (Q. code ­ 102202057) (1) 4 (2) 9 (3) Never (4) 3 (5) 7

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58. What is the value of X – Y? Where, X = Total sum of the card value of all the cards of Sneha after 2nd round Y = Total sum of the face value of all the cards of Rumi after 3rd round (Q. code ­ 102202058) (1) 78 (2) 53 (3) 87 (4) 79 (5) 83

Directions for 4 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:­

There is a Domestic meet of representatives of all the mobile companies present in New Delhi, India. 5 representatives surnamed Ghosh, Soni, Nambodari, Adawalkar, and Sarang are attending the Meet. The ratio of Male: Female in the Meet is 3:2. The representatives hail from 5 different cities viz. Kolkata, Jabalpur, Lucknow, Kozhikode & Pune. Each representative is from a different company, 4 people are wearing different accessories, while one is without any. While deciding who is who following conditions have to be kept in mind ­ 1. Mrs. Ghosh does not like Bracelet or Watch, hails from Kolkata & does not

represent Amsung or Otorola. 2. LEG is represented by Soni. 3. Mokia is represented by a person who is wearing shoes. 4. Blacknberry is represented by a person who is from Pune & is a male. 5. Adawalkar is from Kozhikode and is wearing slippers. 6. Amsung is represented by a female wearing bracelet and with 9 alphabets in her

surname.

59. Who wears the watch? (Q. code ­ 102202059) (1) Soni (2) Sarang (3) Either 1 or 2 (4) Person from Otorola (5) A female

60. The representative of Amsung Company is from which city? (Q. code ­ 102202060) (1) Jabalpur (2) Lucknow (3) Kozhikode (4) Kolkata (5) Cannot be determined

61. Which is the option that gives the correct ordering? (Q. code ­ 102202061) (1) Shoes ­ Mokia ­ Male (2) Male ­ Otorola ­ Adawalkar (3) Jabalpur ­ Soni ­ Female (4) Sarang ­ Pune ­ Blacknberry ­ Female (5) Bracelet ­ Amsung ­ Female ­ Adawalkar

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62. If Sarang wears the watch & the person from Lucknow is a female, then the person who is not with any accessory is from which city? (Q. code ­ 102202062) (1) Lucknow (2) Jabalpur (3) Either 1 or 2 (4) Pune (5) Cannot be determined

Directions for 4 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:­

The top four consultancy firms in the world have their business spread across a very diverse field. But this entails certain recurrent expenditure which is common to all of them. This is usually handled by the Facility and Services Department (F&S) of that company. The common expenditure by the F&S is: (1) Expenditure on electricity units consumed. (2) Expenses on the telephones and other communication devices used. (3) Expenses entailed on subsidies given on food to employees. (4) Other Generic expenditure. The table under, gives us an idea of this:

Power Consumption Communication Subsidies Others EY 35% 20% 20% 25% PD 35% 15% 30% 20% DT 25% 30% 15% 30% AT 45% 15% 20% 20%

For Questions 63 and 64, the questions need to be answered keeping the following specifications in mind: In both the questions, some conditions A, B ... etc. are provided. Mark (1) if there is no solution possible even after using all possible combinations of the conditions. Mark (2) if there is only one possible solution using all possible combinations of the conditions. Mark (3) if there are only two possible solutions using all possible combinations of the conditions. Mark (4) if there are only three possible solutions using all possible combinations of the conditions. Mark (5) if there are more than three possible solutions using all possible combinations of the conditions.

63. Among the four companies which company spends more on power? (Q. code ­ 102202063) A. The total F&S expenditure of PD is greater than expenditure of each company taken

separately. B. F&S expenditure of PD is larger than that of AT by 20%. C. F&S expenditure of EY is larger than that of AT by 35%.

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64. Among the following which company has the minimum F&S expenditure? (Q. code ­ 102202064) A. The expenditure on Subsidies by AT and that of DT on power consumption is the

same. B. F&S expenditure of PD is greater than that of AT by 20%. C. F&S expenditure of DT on other expenses is less than that of EY. D. F&S expenditure of DT on Subsidies is smaller than that of EY by 25%.

65. If the weighted F&S expenses of EY, PD, DT and AT is in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, then what is the ratio of their expenses on Communication? (Q. code ­ 102202065) (1) 2 : 5 : 3 : 4 (2) 4 : 3 : 6 : 3 (3) 2 : 3 : 9 : 6 (4) 3 : 7 : 16 : 19 (5) 1 : 3 : 9 : 27

66. How many (minimum) of the following conditions will be sufficient to find out the exact order of expenditure on F&S by the companies? (Q. code ­ 102202066) A. The expenditure on Subsidies by AT and that of DT on power consumption is the

same. B. F&S expenditure of PD is greater than that of AT by 20%. C. F&S expenditure of DT on other expenses is less than that of EY. D. F&S expenditure of DT on Subsidies is smaller than that of EY by 33.5%. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) All (5) The questions cannot be answered even by using all the 4 statements.

Directions for 4 Questions: Each question is followed by two statements, 1 and 2. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement 1 alone but not by using the statement 2 alone. Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement 2 alone but not by using the statement 1 alone. Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone. Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone. Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

67. I purchased an article for Rs C, marked it at Rs M and sold it at Rs S, which is more than C. Is the profit more than the discount? (Q. code ­ 102202067) (1) C,S,M are in AP (2) C,S,M are in GP

68. a, b, c and d are the only four factors of a number such that a<b<c<d. What is the nature of all the four numbers (even or odd)? (Q. code ­ 102202068) (1) (b + a) is prime (2) (b + c ) is prime

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69. In a bag there are 26 balls of three colors such that the two colors that have the greatest and the second most number of balls differ only by 1, what is the minimum number of balls that when selected from the bag gives us at least 6 balls of one kind? (Q. code ­ 102202069) (1) The bag contains 5 Red balls (2) The bag contains 12 Green balls

70. Does y lie between 1 and 2? (Q. code ­ 102202070) (1) y 2 is greater than y and less than 2y. (2) y 2 is greater than 1 and less than 4.

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Directions for 5 Questions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:­

A new electric machine is invented by the great scientists of CHINDIA. In this electric machine there is an electric source called as E­BAT. There is a wire system connecting all the electrical equipments ­ Bulb, Tube, Fan, CFL, AC, Cooler, Heater, Iron, VCR and TV, in which current flows. This wire system works on a new methodology in which all the equipments consume the current according to their respective requirements and pass the rest of the current to other equipments.

E­BAT

Bulb

Tube

AC

Fan

Heater

CFL VCR

Cooler

Iron

750

450

300

900

300

150

450

450

750

1200

TV

The value given in the area of any electrical equipment represents the requirement of current (in amperes) by that equipment. For example, Tube requires 750 amperes of current to work. N1: The connecting wires are represented by arrows in the figure and current can flow only

in the directions shown by the arrows. N2: The slack (in the table) of any wire is the extra current that can flow through it to bring

the wire to its maximum capacity. N3: The requirements of all the equipments are exactly met.

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Except the wire connecting E­BAT and the Bulb, the maximum capacity of every other wire is 1500 amperes. The slack and current flow details in some of the wires are given in the table below as a percentage of maximum capacity that can flow in the respective wire.

Wire Current Flow Slack

Bulb­Tube 80

Bulb­Fan 80

Cooler­Iron 90

CFL­Heater 70

AC­Cooler 80

Heater­VCR 60

Fan­AC 50

(Example: Bulb­Tube represents the connecting wire between equipments Bulb and Tube)

71. What is the slack of the wire connecting the Bulb and the Heater? (Q. code ­ 102202071) (1) 300 amperes (2) 450 amperes (3) 600 amperes (4) 750 amperes (5) Cannot be determined

72. If the slack of a wire that connects E­BAT to the Bulb is 600 amperes, then what is the capacity of this wire? (assume that it is the only wire that connects E­BAT to the Bulb) (Q. code ­ 102202072) (1) 5400 ampere (2) 6300 amperes (3) 6900 amperes (4) 6600 amperes (5) 4200 amperes

73. What is the difference between the slacks of the wire connecting the Bulb and the Heater and the wire connecting the Cooler and the VCR? (Q. code ­ 102202073) (1) 1050 amperes (2) 900 amperes (3) 600 amperes (4) 450 amperes (5) Cannot be determined

74. If the current flow in the wire connecting the VCR and the TV is 450 amperes, then what is the slack of the wire connecting the Bulb and the AC? (Q. code ­ 102202074) (1) 450 amperes (2) 350 amperes (3) 1050 amperes (4) 900 amperes (5) 550 amperes

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75. What is the flow of current in the wire connecting the Fan and the Heater? (Q. code ­ 102202075) (1) 150 amperes (2) 600 amperes (3) 1050 amperes (4) 450 amperes (5) Cannot be determined