A Contains 28 printed pages This Question Booklet A DRFgtu.ac.in/uploads/DR_QP.pdf · DRF - A ] 4...

W{uËðkhkuLku Mkq[Lkk :

DRF

This Question BookletContains 28 printed pagesA

Mk{Þ : 120 r{rLkxfw÷ «&™ku : 200

fw÷ økwý : 200

Time : 120 Minutes

Total Ques. : 200 Total

Marks : 200

(01) ¥‹œ‹‹”‹ ë‡Í‹ ƒ‹‡±‹√‹‹Â Ü‹¡‹‹” ¥‹œ‹Â üÂ¸Í‹‹ Ù‹‹ú‹‹ ã∂‹”‹Â Ü‹∆—‹‹˜Ô‹Â ¥‹Â√‹fl Ù‹ÿÉ—‹‹ ã∆‹” ”˜ÂÔ‹Â. ∆‹¬√‹ 1 ≥‹fl 200 œ‹‹¸Â π”Âë∆‹¬√‹√‹‹Â 1 ƒ‹‡±‹ ìÂ.

(02) 1 ≥‹fl 200 ∆‹¬√‹‹Â ∆‹‚”Â∆‹‚”‹ ì∆‹‹—‹ÂÍ‹‹ ìÂ ëÂ ëÂœ‹ ? ¥‹Â√‹fl ∆‹¬≥‹œ‹É‹‹¥‹”fl ë”fl Í‹‹Â. °Â ∆‹¬√‹‹Â ∆‹‚”‹ ì∆‹‹—‹‹ √‹ ˜‹Â—‹ Ü≥‹Ì‹‹ ë‹Ââ∆‹‰Û´ …‹¸ÂÍ‹‡ÿ ˜‹Â—‹ ëÂ ë‹Ââ ∆‹‰Û´ Ù‹‹œ‹ÂÍ‹ √‹ ˜‹Â—‹ (Missing) ¥‹‹Â¥‹”¥‹ ü ∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹ ›√‹”flö‹ë ∆‹‹Ù‹Â≥‹fl Üú‹‚ë À‹πÍ‹‹Ì‹fl Í‹ÂÌ‹fl.

(03) °Â ƒ‹‡ü”‹¥‹fl ∆‹¬˛‹‹Âœ‹‹ÿ ›ø¡‹‹ ˜‹Â—‹ ¥‹‹Â Üÿƒ‹¬Â¢ ∆‹¬˛‹ ∆‹”√‹‹Â Ù‹ÿπÕ‹⁄Í‹â ¥‹Â√‹‹ ∆‹” Ü‹¡‹‹” ”‹É‹Ì‹‹Â. Üÿƒ‹¬Â¢ Õ‹‹Û‹‹ Ü≥‹⁄ô‹¸√‹ œ‹‹¸ÂÜ‹É‹”fl ƒ‹±‹‹Ô‹Â.

(04) Ü‹ ∆‹‹√‹‹ ã∆‹” Ü‹∆‹√‹‹Â ”‹ÂÍ‹ √‹ÿÀ‹” Í‹É‹‹Â.

(05) Ü‹∆‹ ë‹Ââ√‹‹ ã∂‹”√‹fl √‹ëÍ‹ ë”Ô‹‹Â √‹›˜, ¥‹Âœ‹ü Ü‹∆‹√‹‹ ã∂‹”√‹fl√‹ëÍ‹ ë”Ì‹‹ πÂÔ‹‹Â √‹›˜.

(06) ∆‹”flö‹‹≥‹fl⁄Ü‹Â√‹Â ∆‹”flö‹‹ É‹ÿ≤/˜‹ÁÍ‹œ‹‹ÿ ∆‹¬Ì‹ÂÔ‹∆‹µ‹ ›Ù‹Ì‹‹—‹ ë‹Ââ ∆‹±‹ ∆‹¬ë‹”√‹‹˜Ù¥‹›Í‹›É‹¥‹, ì‹∆‹ÂÍ‹ ∆‹‡Ù¥‹ë ëÂ ë‹ƒ‹Ï√‹fl ›ú‹¨fl, ∆‹Â∆‹”, œ‹‹ÂÀ‹‹âÍ‹-Ù‹ÂÍ‹…‹Â√‹ ëÂ ë‹Ââ ∆‹±‹ ∆‹¬ë‹”√‹‹ áÍ‹Âê¸◊‹Â›√‹ë Ù‹‹¡‹√‹‹Â Í‹â ËÌ‹‹√‹fl ëÂã∆‹—‹‹Âƒ‹ ë”Ì‹‹√‹fl Ü√‹‡œ‹›¥‹ √‹≥‹fl.

(07) ∆‹¬√‹‹Â√‹‹ ËÌ‹‹À‹‹Â ÜÍ‹ƒ‹ ËÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ Ü‹∆‹Ì‹‹√‹‹ ”˜ÂÔ‹Â. ËÂ√‹Â œ‹‹ Â›√‹”flö‹ë ø‹”‹ Ü‹∆‹√‹Â ë‹Âœ∆—‹‡¸”‹âî÷≤ É‹‹Ù‹ ∆‹¬ë‹”√‹fl ËÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl(OMR Answer Sheet) Ü‹∆‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â. ãœ‹ÂπÌ‹‹”√‹Â ËÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹Î—‹‹ À‹‹π °Â ¥‹ÂÜ‹Â ø‹”‹ ¥‹Â√‹‹Â √‹‹Ô‹ ë”Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â ëÂ ƒ‹‡œ‹ë”Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â ëÂ ∆‹”flö‹‹ ∆‹‡”fl ≥‹—‹‹ À‹‹π ∆‹”¥‹ Ü‹∆‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ √‹˜ŒÜ‹Ì‹Â ¥‹‹Â ãœ‹ÂπÌ‹‹” …‹ÂËπ‹”fl ƒ‹‡√‹‹√‹Â ∆‹‹µ‹ À‹√‹Ô‹Â. Ù‹‹Ê ∆‹¬≥‹œ‹ Ü‹∆‹ÂËÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl ã∆‹” πÔ‹‹⁄Ì‹ÂÍ‹ ”‹ÂÍ‹ √‹ÿÀ‹” (À‹Â´ë √‹ÿÀ‹”), ∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹›Ù‹”flî, ∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹ √‹ÿÀ‹”√‹‹ É‹‹√‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ù‹‹ú‹fl Ü√‹Â ∆‹‚”fl ›Ì‹ƒ‹¥‹‹Â…ê¥‹ Õ‹‚”fl Ü≥‹Ì‹‹ ë‹Ïfl Ô‹‹˜fl√‹fl À‹‹ÂÍ‹∆‹Â√‹≥‹fl Í‹É‹Ì‹‹√‹fl ”˜ÂÔ‹ÂÜ√‹Â ¥‹Â√‹fl √‹flú‹Â√‹‹ Ì‹¥‹‡⁄Ï ∆‹‚”Â∆‹”‹ ≤‹ë⁄ (encode) ë”Ì‹‹√‹‹ ” ÂÔ‹Â.Ü‹ ›Ì‹ƒ‹¥‹‹Â√‹fl ú‹ë‹Ù‹±‹fl À‹‹π ›√‹”flö‹ë ¥‹Âœ‹√‹fl Ù‹˜fl ë”Ô‹Â. °Â›Ì‹ƒ‹¥‹‹Â Õ‹”Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ √‹›˜ Ü‹Ì‹Â ¥‹‹Â Ü‹∆‹√‹fl üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl√‹‡ÿ œ‹‚Í—‹‹ÿë√‹ë”Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â √‹›˜ Ü√‹Â Ô‹‚√—‹ ƒ‹‡±‹ Ü‹∆‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â.

(08) Ü‹ ∆‹¬√‹∆‹µ‹√‹‹ À‹¡‹‹ ∆‹¬√‹‹Â ˜Â¥‹‡Í‹ö‹fl ìÂ. π”Âë ∆‹¬√‹√‹‹ ã∂‹”œ‹‹ÿA, B, C, D ›Ì‹ëÍ∆‹‹Â Ü‹∆‹ÂÍ‹‹ ìÂ. OMR ËÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ E ›Ì‹ëÍ∆‹Ü‹∆‹ÂÍ‹ ìÂ. ËÂ ∆‹Êëfl E ›Ì‹ëÍ∆‹ ``Not Attempted'' Üÿƒ‹Â√‹‹Â ”˜ÂÔ‹Â.ËÂ ãœ‹ÂπÌ‹‹” ∆‹¬√‹√‹‹Â ËÌ‹‹À‹ Ü‹∆‹Ì‹‹ √‹ áúì¥‹‹ ˜‹Â—‹ ¥‹Â Ü‹ ›Ì‹ëÍ∆‹∆‹Ù‹ÿπ ë”fl Ô‹ëÔ‹Â. Ü√‹Â ``Not Attempted'' ›Ì‹ëÍ∆‹ ∆‹Ù‹ÿπ ë”Ì‹‹√‹‹›ëÙÙ‹‹œ‹‹ÿ √‹Âƒ‹Â¸flÌ‹ œ‹‹ëfl¤ƒ‹ Í‹‹ƒ‹‡ ∆‹≤Ô‹Â √‹˜Œ. ¥‹Â≥‹fl ãœ‹ÂπÌ‹‹”ÂÙ‹‹ú‹‹Â ›Ì‹ëÍ∆‹ Ô‹‹Â¡‹fl ËÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl (OMR Answer Sheet) œ‹‹ÿÙ‹ÿÀ‹ÿ›¡‹¥‹ ∆‹¬√‹√‹‹ òœ‹ Ù‹‹œ‹Â Ü‹∆‹ÂÍ‹ A, B, C, D ëÂ E √‹‹ Ì‹¥‹‡⁄Ï√‹Â∆‹‚”Â∆‹‚”‡ÿ Õ‹‚”fl/ë‹Ïfl Ô‹‹˜fl√‹fl À‹‹ÂÍ‹∆‹Â√‹≥‹fl ≤‹ë⁄ ë”Ì‹‡ÿ.

Ü‹ ›Ù‹Ì‹‹—‹√‹fl ë‹Ââ ∆‹±‹ ëÍ‹”√‹fl Ô‹‹˜fl√‹fl À‹‹ÂÍ‹∆‹Â√‹≥‹fl ËÌ‹‹À‹‹ÂÜ‹∆—‹‹ ˜Ô‹Â ¥‹‹Â ¥‹Â ËÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl ¥‹∆‹‹Ù‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â √‹›˜ Ü√‹ÂÜ‹∆‹‹ÂÜ‹∆‹ ``Ô‹‚√—‹'' ƒ‹‡±‹ Ü‹∆‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â. ÜÂëÌ‹‹” ≤‹ë⁄ë”ÂÍ‹ üÌ‹‹À‹√‹Â À‹πÍ‹fl Ô‹ë‹Ô‹Â √‹›˜.ãπ‹˜”±‹ ¥‹”flëÂ :Õ‹‹”¥‹√‹‡ÿ ë—‹‡ÿ ”‹ü—‹ Ù‹‹Ê≥‹fl Í‹‹ÿÀ‹‹Â π›”—‹‹ ›ë√‹‹”‹Â ¡‹”‹Ì‹Â ìÂ ?

A B D EC

(A) œ‹˜‹”‹Û¸◊ (B) ¥‹‹›œ‹Í‹√‹‹≤‡(C) ƒ‹‡Ë”‹¥‹ (D) Ü‹ÿ¡‹¬∆‹¬πÂÔ‹Ü‹ ãπ‹˜”±‹œ‹‹ÿ Ù‹‹ú‹‹Â ËÌ‹‹À‹ (C) ìÂ. Ü‹≥‹fl (C) √‹‡ÿ Ì‹¥‹‡⁄Ï ≤‹ë⁄(encode) ë”ÂÍ‹ ìÂ. ãœ‹ÂπÌ‹‹”‹ÂÜÂ ËÌ‹‹À‹œ‹‹ÿ ``ƒ‹‡ü”‹¥‹'' Í‹É‹Ì‹‡ÿ √‹›˜.

(09) ÜÂë Ë ∆‹¬√‹ œ‹‹¸Â °Â üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ ÜÂë≥‹fl Ì‹¡‹‡ ›Ì‹ëÍ∆‹Ü‹∆‹Â Ü‹∆‹ÂÍ‹‹ ˜Ô‹Â ¥‹‹Â ¥‹Â üÌ‹‹À‹ œ‹‹ Â ƒ‹‡±‹ Ü‹∆‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â √‹›˜.

(10) üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ Ü‹∆‹Â √‹flú‹Â ∆‹Êëfl√‹fl ë‹Âá ∆‹±‹ Õ‹‚Í‹ ë”ÂÍ‹ ˜Ô‹Â ¥‹‹ÂÜ‹∆‹√‹fl üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl ¥‹∆‹‹Ù‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â √‹›˜ Ü√‹Â Ô‹‚√—‹ ƒ‹‡±‹Ü‹∆‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â ¥‹≥‹‹ Ü‹Ì‹fl ö‹›¥‹Ü‹Â À‹‹À‹¥‹Â ∆‹‹ìÏ≥‹fl ë‹Ââ∆‹±‹∆‹¬ë‹”√‹fl ”Ë‚Ü‹¥‹ ¡—‹‹√‹Â Í‹ÂÌ‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â √‹˜Œ.(1) üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ ›Ì‹ƒ‹¥‹‹Â Õ‹‚”fl / ë‹Ïfl Ô‹‹˜flÌ‹‹Ïfl À‹‹ÁÍ‹∆‹Â√‹ ›Ù‹Ì‹‹—‹Ü√—‹ ”fl¥‹Â Ü‹∆‹ÂÍ‹ ˜Ô‹Â, (2) üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ ”… ë‹œ‹ ë”ÂÍ‹ ˜Ô‹Â,(3) üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ Õ‹”Ì‹‹√‹fl ë‹Âá ∆‹±‹ ë‹ÂÍ‹œ‹√‹fl ›Ì‹ƒ‹¥‹œ‹‹ÿ ë‹ÂáÕ‹‚Í‹ ë”ÂÍ‹ ˜Ô‹Â ëÂ ”‹ÂÍ‹ √‹ÿÀ‹”, ∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹ ›Ù‹”flî Ü√‹Â∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹ √‹ÿÀ‹” É‹‹Â ‹ Í‹É‹ÂÍ‹ ˜Ô‹Â ëÂ É‹‹Â ‹ ÜÂ√ë‹Â≤ (encode)ë”ÂÍ‹ ˜Ô‹Â, (4) üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ ≥‹—‹ÂÍ‹ Õ‹‚Í‹‹Â Ù‹‡¡‹‹”Ì‹‹ œ‹‹ Â ë”ÂêÔ‹√‹á√ë, ë”ÂêÔ‹√‹ …Í—‹‡≤, ë”ÂêÔ‹√‹ ∆‹Â√‹, á”Âî” ëÂ ÀÍ‹Â≤√‹‹Â ã∆‹—‹‹Âƒ‹ë”ÂÍ‹ ˜Ô‹Â, (5) üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ ›√‹Ô‹‹√‹flÜ‹Â / ∆‹¬›¥‹ë‹Â ë”ÂÍ‹ ˜Ô‹Â.

(11) Ü‹ üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl ë‹Âœ∆—‹‡¸” ø‹”‹ ¥‹∆‹‹Ù‹‹Ì‹‹√‹fl ˜‹ÂÌ‹‹≥‹fl ¥‹Â Ì‹ÏÂ,…‹ Â ëÂ À‹ƒ‹≤Â √‹›˜ ¥‹Â√‹fl É‹‹Ù‹ ë‹Ï¢ ”‹É‹Ì‹fl ¥‹≥‹‹ üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl√‹flƒ‹≤fl Ì‹‹ÏÌ‹fl √‹˜Œ.

(12) ∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹œ‹‹ÿ ë‹Â”fl Ëƒ—‹‹œ‹‹ÿ ”…ë‹œ‹ ë”Ì‹‡ÿ. ¥‹Â œ‹‹¸Â ÜÍ‹ƒ‹ ë‹ƒ‹ÏÜ‹∆‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â √‹›˜. ËÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜flœ‹‹ÿ ëá ∆‹±‹ ”…Ì‹ë⁄ ë”Ì‹‡ÿ √‹›˜.∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹œ‹‹ÿ üÌ‹‹À‹‹Â Í‹É‹Ì‹‹√‹fl œ‹√‹‹á ìÂ.

(13) ∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹√‹‹ ë‹Âá ∆‹‰Û´ …‹≤Ì‹‹ÿ ëÂ Ë‡π‹ÿ ë”Ì‹‹√‹fl œ‹√‹‹á ìÂ.(14) ∆‹”flö‹‹É‹ÿ≤ ì‹Â≤¥‹‹ ∆‹‚Ì‹Â⁄ üÌ‹‹À‹Ì‹˜fl (OMR Answer Sheet)

›√‹”flö‹ë√‹Â Ù‹‹«∆‹Ì‹fl, ü—‹‹”Â ∆‹¬√‹∆‹‡fiÙ¥‹ë‹ ãœ‹ÂπÌ‹‹”‹Â Í‹á üáÔ‹ëÔ‹Â.

(15) Ü‹ ëÙ‹‹Â¸flœ‹‹ÿ ∆‹¬¥—‹Âë É‹‹Â¸‹ üÌ‹‹À‹, ÜÂë≥‹fl Ì‹¡‹‡ üÌ‹‹À‹√‹‹›ëÙÙ‹‹œ‹‹ÿ ¥‹≥‹‹ ÜÂë ∆‹±‹ ›Ì‹ëÍ∆‹ ÜÂ√‹ë‹Â≤ √‹˜Œ ë”Ì‹‹√‹‹ ›ëÙÙ‹‹œ‹‹ÿüÂ ¥‹Â üÌ‹‹À‹√‹‹ ›√‹›ˇ‹¥‹ ƒ‹‡±‹√‹‹ 0.25 ƒ‹‡±‹ œ‹ÂÏÌ‹ÂÍ‹ ƒ‹‡±‹œ‹‹ÿ≥‹flë‹∆‹Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â. ÜÂ¸Í‹Â ëÂ É‹‹Â¸‹ üÌ‹‹À‹‹Â œ‹‹¸Â √‹Âƒ‹Â¸flÌ‹ ƒ‹‡±‹√‹flÀ‹‹À‹¥‹ ãœ‹ÂπÌ‹‹”Â ¡—‹‹√‹Â ”‹É‹Ì‹‹√‹fl ”˜ÂÔ‹Â.

(16) Ü‹ Ù‹‚ú‹√‹‹Ü‹Â√‹‹ Ü√‹‹π” œ‹‹¸Â ãœ‹ÂπÌ‹‹” Ù‹‹œ‹Â ›Ô‹ö‹‹¥œ‹ë ë‹—‹⁄Ì‹‹˜flë”Ì‹‹œ‹‹ÿ Ü‹Ì‹Ô‹Â.

ASEAL

STICKER«&™ÃkwÂMíkfk ¢{ktf

W{uËðkhLkku çkuXf Lktçkh

DRF - A ] 2 [Contd.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / hV fk{ {kxuLke søÞk

DRF - A ] 3 P.T.O.

* From the following select the word which best express the meaning of the given

word(synonyms)

1. Deify

(A) face (B) worship

(C) flatter (D) challenge

2. Barbarian

(A) arrogant (B) impolite

(C) uncivilized (D) unkind

* From the sentence an underlined word give an alternative word which is closest to the

opposite in meaning (Antonyms)

3. Geetanjali is loved by every one for her meekness

(A) harshness (B) pride

(C) anger (D) passion

4. His appointment was confirmed last month

(A) disappointment (B) discharge

(C) suspension (D) dismissal

* In the following two sentences, two homonyms are underlined, either misspelt or

inappropriate in reference select the answer.

5. 1. This is the best stationary shop in the town.

2. I saw a stationery van there.

(A) Only sentence 1 is correct (B) Only sentence 2 is correct

(C) sentence 1 and 2 both are correct (D) sentence 1 and 2 both are not correct

6. 1. He is respected for his peity.

2. Have pity for poor.

(A) Only sentence 1 is correct (B) Only sentence 2 is correct

(C) sentence 1 and 2 both are correct (D) Sentence 1 and 2 both are not correct.

* Select a suitable word, for the word or group of words given below.

7. To cause troops etc. to spread out in readiness for the war.

(A) Align (B) Collocate

(C) Deploy (D) Disperse

8. A person who does not believe in any religion

(A) Align (B) Collocate

(C) Deploy (D) Disperse

* Select the most proper word, to fill in the blank, in the sentence

9. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making ———— selection.

(A) sample (B) normal

(C) standard (D) judicious

DRF - A ] 4 [Contd.

10. Success comes to those who are vigilant not to permit ——from the chosen path.

(A) diversion (B) deviation

(C) obstruction (D) distraction

11. She always runs short ———money.

(A) of (B) by

(C) in (D) to

12. The government agreed to pay compensation ———damaged crops land and loss of animals.

(A) to (B) of

(C) through (D) for

* Select the proper words, to make the sentence more meaningful, in place of underlined

words, if needed.

13. Within few years most of the fertile land had underwent forcibly for indigo cultivation.

(A) to (B) of

(C) through (D) for

14. If you have paid only twenty rupees for this purse, it has really cheap.

(A) has really cheapest (B) is really cheap

(C) has been really cheap (D) is real cheap

* From the sentences mentioned below, which sentence is not correct?

15. 1. always write with ink

2. his taste coincide with wife’s taste.

3. Aurangzeb was bigoted in religion

4. there is no harm in doing this work

(A) sentence 1 is not correct (B) sentence 2 is not correct

(C) sentence 3 is not correct (D) sentence 4is not correct

16. 1. he was appointed to the post

2. Sunil cracks the jokes with me.

3. I am confident of securing victory.

4. he has no house to live.

(A) sentence 1 is not correct (B) sentence 2 is not correct

(C) sentence 3 is not correct (D) sentence 4is not correct

* Select the word/group of words (from a to d), for explaining the meaning of the idiom/

phrase in the sentence.

17. If you pass this exam, it will be a feather in your cap.

(A) you will get very good job (B) you will feel proud of it.

(C) your parents will be very happy. (D) you will get scholarship for further studies

18. He is wolf in sheep clothing

(A) scoundrel (B) rogue

(C) hypocrite (D) crook

DRF - A ] 5 P.T.O.

19. Which of the following is not a term related to internet?

(A) link (B) keyboard

(C) browser (D) search engine

20. To make a copy of the current document on, the disk, which command is used?

(A) save command (B) this cannot be done

(C) duplicate command (D) ‘save as’ command

21. In excel, this is a pre-recorded formula that provides a shortcut for complex calculation.

(A) value (B) data series

(C) function (D) field

22. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?

(A) scanner (B) printer

(C) monitor (D) interpreter

23. “One Dive” is the name of Cloud Computing Service of, which one of the companies

(A) Apple (B) Microsoft

(C) Google (D) Yahoo

24. The UNIX operation system is suitable for

(A) .Single user (B) Multi user

(C) Real-Time Processing (D) Distributed processing

25. In 1940 VinobaBhjave started Individual Satyagraha from

(A) Nadiad Kheda distict Gujarat (B) Pavnar Maharashtra

(C) Punnapra Kerala (D) Guntar Andhra Pradesh

26. Hunter commission was appointed by British to probe in to

(A) Bardoli Satyagraha (B) Khalifat Movement

(C) Jallanwala Bag tragedy (D) ChauriChaura incident

27. Indian National Advisory Board for Libraries was setup in 1966 by

(A) Association of Indian Universities (B) Ministry of Education

(C) Planning Commission (D) University Grants Commission

28. Which device is used to control the cursor movement?

(A) light pen (B) track ball

(C) joystick (D) plotter

29. Which is not true, for Regional Rural Bank (RRB)?

(A) it provides direct finance to small and marginal farmers

(B) it is co-sponsored by RBI.

(C) they also perform other banking functions

(D) state government is also share-holder in the bank

30. Which of the following internal factor is not responsible for industrial sickness

(A) mismanagement (B) power shortage

(C) wrong dividend policy (D) diversion of funds.

DRF - A ] 6 [Contd.

31. Level playing field argument of industries requires,

(A) MNC to be stopped from investing in India

(B) license for MNC to be given only in environment –friendly industries.

(C) domestic industry to be given preference.

(D) domestic industry to be treated on par with MNC.

32. RBI does not transact the business of which state government?

(A) Nagaland (B) Jammu and Kashmir

(C) Punjab (D) Assam

33. The Commissioner of Railway safety is under the administrative control of

(A) ministry of civil Aviation (B) ministry of railways

(C) ministry of surface transport (D) Cabinet Secretariat.

34. The first bank managed by Indian Board with limited liability was

(A) Oudh commercial bank (B) Punjab National Bank

(C) Dena Bank (D) Punjab and sind Bank

35. At present in Gujarat state, how many Municipal corporations are established?

(A) six (B) seven

(C) eight (D) nine

36. Sex ratio of India is

(A) 943 (B) 934

(C) 919 (D) 845

37. Literacy rate of Gujarat State is

(A) 78.0 (B) 77.0

(C) 79.0 (D) 76.0

38. The percentage of rural and urban population in Gujarat, as per 2011 census is

(A) 57.4 and 42.6 (B) 43.6and 57.4

(C) 68.9 and 31.3 (D) 31.3 and 68.9

39. Based on the variations in its geological structure and formations, India can be divided in

to how many divisions?

(A) two (B) three

(C) four (D) five

40. Gujarat has the coastline of how many kilometers?

(A) 1,600 Km (B) 1500 Km

(C) 1800 Km (D) 1700 Km.

41. The process of change of state of water from solid, directly to vapor is called

(A) condensation (B) snow fall

(C) sublimation (D) precipitation

42. What is measured by sling psychomotor?

(A) temperature (B) relative humidity

(C) pressure (D) wind velocity

DRF - A ] 7 P.T.O.

43. National institutions and location-from the following pairs, which pair is not correct

(A) central Rice Research institute = Cuttack

(B) Advanced Level Telecom Centre = Ghaziabad

(C) Centre for wind energy = Almora

(D) V V Giri National Labour Institute = Noida(U.P.)

44. Places associated with sports and games-which pair from the following pairs, is not correct

(A) cricket = Eaden Gardens Kolkata

(B) foot ball = MoinulHaqqua stadium Patna

(C) hockey = Dhayn chand Stadium Patiala

(D) tennis = Wimbledon

45. Which is the largest continent by area?

(A) Asia (B) Africa

(C) Europe (D) Australia

46. Indian language and prominent writer –from the following which pair is not correct.

(A) Assames = Ajit Barua (B) Bengali = Iswar Chandra Gupta

(C) Dogri = Manchand (D) english = D R Bendre

47. Indian dance and prominent dancer-from the following which pair is not correct.

(A) Bharanatatyam = Shanta Rao (B) Kathak = Sitara Devi

(C) kathakali = KanakRele (D) Manipuri = Indrani Rahman

48. From the following ,which pair of area and folk dance is not correct

(A) Maharashtra = Lazim (B) Karnataka = Huttari

(C) west Bengal = Baul (D) Bihar = Kajri

49. Theatre form and the state: which pair is not correct?

(A) jalta = west Bangal (B) Bhavai = Gujarat

(C) Khayal = Rajasthan (D) Naqual = Madya Pradesh

50. Which of the following has not a Indian Musical basis?

(A) Dhrupad (B) solkam

(C) tappa (D) khayal

51. Cultural institutes and location: which pair is not correct?

(A) central Institute of Buddhist studies = Leh

(B) Indian Museum = Kolkata

(C) kalakshetra Foundation = Ahmedabad

(D) Nehru Science Centre = Mumbai

52. Monuments of India and their state-location:which pair is not correct?

(A) AhomRaja’s palace = Assam

(B) Kangra Fort = Himachal Pradesh

(C) Rani-ki –vav = Gujarat

(D) Zanana Enclosures = Jammu and Kashmir

DRF - A ] 8 [Contd.

53. Which pair of newspaper and place of publishing is not correct?

(A) Anand Bazar Patrika = Kolkata

(B) statesman = Mumbai

(C) Nav Bharat times = New Delhi and Mumbai

(D) Deccan Herald = Bengaluru

54. Who declared “The only hope for India is from masses. The upprr class are physically and

mentally dead”

(A) GopalkrishanaGokhale (B) BalGangadharTilake

(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Swami Vivakanand

55. What was the chiefprogramme of Swaraj Party?

(A) council entry (B) constitutional opposition

(C) rural development (D) none of above

56. Who was the author of Gita Gobind?

(A) Vidyapati (B) Surdas

(C) Jaya Deva (D) Mirabai

57. The movement that came to an abrupt end due to Chari Chaura incident was the

(A) Wahabi movement (B) home rule movement

(C) non co-operation movement (D) civil disobidience movement

58. Who was the president of Indian national congress when India became free?

(A) mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawarharlal Nehru

(C) J B Kripalani (D) Sardar Patel

59. The French challenge to British Supremacy ended with

(A) the battle of Wandiwash (B) the battle of Baxar

(C) battle of Seringapanam (D) battle of plassey

60. Dalhousie annexed Avadh for the British Empire in India through

(A) policy of subsidiary Alliance (B) doctrine of Lapse

(C) state of being maladministration (D) waging of was

61. The original aim of East India company was

(A) to colonize

(B) to trade

(C) to find a market for their manufactured goods

(D) to exploit the raw material of India.

62. The population census took place after how many years?

(A) 11 (B) 10

(C) 12 (D) 15

63. In the last census the percentage share of urban population for the nation was

(A) 31.3 (B) 45.3

(C) 50.3 (D) 53.5

DRF - A ] 9 P.T.O.

64. As per last census, the state with the lowest sex ratio is

(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Assam

(C) Kerala (D) Haryana

65. The child sex of India is,

(A) 918 (B) 890

(C) 950 (D) None of above

66. The Union Territory having the highest density of population in India is

(A) Chandigarh (B) Daman and Diu

(C) Puducherry (D) NCT of Delhi

67. The state with the largest seats in Lok sabha is

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Maharashtra

(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Gujarat

68. As per census 2011,the district in Gujarat, with the lowest literacy rate is

(A) Tapi (B) Dohad

(C) Banas Katha (D) Narmada

69. Survey of India is under which Ministry?

(A) environment and forest (B) home affairs

(C) defense (D) science and technology

70. The resolution to remove the vice –president of India can be moved in the

(A) Lok sabha alone (B) either house of parliament

(C) joint sitting of parliament (D) Rajya sabha alone.

71. The executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor. This provision is mentioned under which

Article of the constitution of India?

(A) 151 (B) 152

(C) 153 (D) 154

72. The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

This provision is mentioned under which Article of the constitution of India?

(A) 155 (B) 156

(C) 157 (D) 158

73. For Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), read the following statements which statement/

s is/are correct.

1. Achieve housing for all by the year 2022, 2 crore in Urban and 3 Crore homes in Rural

areas.

2. the government will provide financial assistance to the poor home buyers, interest subsidy

on home loan and direct subsidy on homes bought under the scheme

(A) 1 statement is correct (B) 2 statement is correct

(C) both 1 and 2 statement are correct (D) both 1 and 2 statement are not correct

DRF - A ] 10 [Contd.

74. For Pradhan MantriJeevanJyotiBimaYojana (PMJJBY), which is not correct statement.

(A) is a government backed life insurance scheme.

(B) The scheme is open and available to all Indian citizens between the age of 18 to 50

years.

(C) a life insurance cover of Rs. 5 Lakh with an annual premium of just Rs. 1330 excluding

service taxes

(D) saving bank account is must.

75. For Pradhan Mantri Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (PMSSY), which is not correct statement

(A) Main Objective: Secure the future of girl child

(B) small deposit savings scheme for a girl child

(C) a saving account can be opened in the name of girl child and deposits can be made for

14 years

(D) After the girl reach 18 years of age, she can withdraw 100% of the amount for marriage

or higher study purposes.

76. Under Make in India scheme, which is not the object of the scheme.

(A) To encourage multi-national, as well as domestic companies to manufacture their

products in India

(B) To create jobs and skill enhancement in 25 sectors

(C) To achieve high quality standards and minimizing the impact on the environment.

(D) only foreign investor can invest in capital and technology.

77. The functions and the powers of Central and the State are laid down in which Article?

(A) 113 (B) 51

(C) 240 (D) 246

78. The report of the committee on renovation and rejuvenation of higher education (Yashpal

Committee) –what are the recommendations?

1. protect the intellectual autonomy of educational institutions

2. the creation of an all-encompassing National Commission for Higher Education and

Research (NCHER) to replace or subsume the existing regulatory bodies.

3. the university as a place where research and teaching become two important pillars of

the creation of knowledge and should go together.

4. It should provide practical training to the people that should be based on new knowledge

and in response to social and personal needs.

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3,and 4

79. University Grants commission (UGC) is situated at

(A) New Delhi (B) Mumbai

(C) Kolkata (D) Chennai

80. Under MHRD how many Apex Level Bodies for Higher Education are working?

(A) 5 (B) 6

(C) 7 (D) 8

DRF - A ] 11 P.T.O.

81. From the following places, select the place where IIT is not established?

(A) Gandhi agar (B) Goa

(C) Jammu (D) Kolkata

82. From the statements given below for IIM Ahmadabad, which is not correct.

1. Led by space scientist Dr. Vikram Sarabhai and an eminent industrialist and

philanthropist Shri KasturbhaiLalbhai, and proactively supported by the then Chief

Minister of Gujarat, Dr. Jivraj Mehta, a group of enlightened individuals set up IIMA in

1961.

2. This group ably wove together a coalition of five actors - the governments at the centre

and the state, local industrialists, the Ford Foundation and the Harvard Business School,

to establish the foundations of the Institute.

(A) one is not correct (B) two is not correct

(C) 1 and 2 both are correct (D) 1 and 2 both are not correct.

83. In India how many National Institute of Technology are established?

(A) 30 (B) 31

(C) 32 (D) 33

84. For Indian Institute of Science Bangalore, from the Following statements, which statement

is correct?

1. was founded in 1909 as a result of the joint efforts of JamsetjiNussarwanji Tata, the

Government of India and the Maharaja of Mysore

2. in 1898, Tata created an endowment for establishing such an institution

3. The Government of India decided to locate the Institute in Bengaluru, where the Maharaja

of Mysore, KrishnarajaWodeyar IV, donated over 370 acres of land

4. the foundation stone was laid in 1911, and the first batch of students started their studies

the same yea

(A) all statements are correct (B) all statements are not correct

(C) 1, 2 are correct (D) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

85. From the following statements for All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE),

which statement is/are correct?

1. All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) was set-up in November 1945 as a

national level Apex Advisory Body

2. All India Council for Technical Education was established on May 12, 1988

3. AICTE was vested with statutory authority for planning, formulation and maintenance

of norms and standards, quality assurance through accreditation, funding in priority

areas, monitoring and evaluation, maintaining parity of certification and awards and

ensuring coordinated and integrated development and management of technical education

in the country.

(A) 1 is correct (B) 2 is correct

(C) both 1 and 2 are correct (D) both 1 and 2 are not correct


86. Pharmacy council of India was established with purpose. From the following statement

which was not the purpose?

1. PCI as a pharmacy educationist regulatory body has realized the need to strengthen and

upgrade the pharmacy curriculum to produce competent pharmacist workforce.

2. The ever expanding Pharma’s industrial and practice sectors need clinically and

technologically trained pharmacy professionals who can face global challenges and

compete with the multinationals

3. promotion of managerial skill.

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3 (D) only 3

87. The law system in India was established with certain historical points. From the following

which was/were the historical point?

1. Legal system we have today, traversing through secular legal systems and the common

law.

2. The common law system – a system of law based on recorded judicial precedents- came

to India with the British East India Company.

3. The Constitution of India is the guiding light in all matters executive, legislative and

judicial in the country.

4. From an artifice of the colonial masters, the Indian legal system has evolved as an essential

ingredient of the world’s largest democracy and a crucial front in the battle to secure

constitutional rights for every citizen.

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1,2,3,and 4

88. From the following which is not The objectives of the medical Council

(A) Maintenance of uniform standards of medical education, both undergraduate and

postgraduate.

(B) Recommendation for recognition/de-recognition of medical qualifications of medical

institutions of India or foreign countries.

(C) coordinating with other system of medicine.

(D) Permanent registration/provisional registration of doctors with recognized medical

qualifications.

DRF - A ] 13 P.T.O.

89. From the following statement ,which is/are correct statement/s for The National Board of

Accreditation (NBA),

1. The National Board of Accreditation (NBA), India was initially established by AICTE

(All India Council of Technical Education) under section 10(u) of AICTE act, in the year

1994,

2. for periodic evaluations of technical institutions & programs basis according to specified

norms and standards as recommended by AICTE council.

3. NBA in its present form came into existence as an autonomous body with effect from 7th

January 2010

4. with the objective of Assurance of Quality and Relevance of Education, especially of the

programs in professional and technical disciplines

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. For The NATIONAL ASSESSMENT AND ACCREDITATION COUNCIL (NAAC) which

statement is not correct?

(A) it is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission (UGC) of

India

(B) it was established to assess and accredit institutions of higher education in the country

and special emphasis on upholding the quality of higher education in India

(C) President - General Council is Hon, Minister of the department.

(D) the NAAC was established in 1994 with its headquarters at Bangalore

91. The provision for THE UNION AND ITS TERRITORY is mentioned under which part?

(A) I (B) II

(C) III (D) IV

92. ‘Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law.’ This provision was made in which

article of Indian constitution?

(A) 11 (B) 12

(C) 13 (D) 14

93. ‘The right Equality before law’ This provision was made in which article of Indian

constitution?

(A) 13 (B) 14

(C) 15 (D) 16

94. ‘State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people’.

This provision was made in which article of Indian constitution?

(A) 35 (B) 36

(C) 37 (D) 38

95. ‘There is equal pay for equal work for both men and women;’

This provision was made in which article of Indian constitution?

(A) 39–a (B) 39–b

(C) 39–c (D) 39–d


96. ‘Organisation of village panchayats’

This provision is mentioned under which Article of Indian constitution?

(A) 36 (B) 38

(C) 40 (D) 42

97. ‘FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES’ are mentioned in which part of Indian constitution?

(A) ii (B) iii

(C) IV A (D) V

98. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in

(A) the President (B) prime minister

(C) finance minister (D) home minister

99. ‘Qualifications for election as President.’

For this, necessary’ provision, is mentioned under which Article of Indian constitution?

(A) 56 (B) 57

(C) 58 (D) 59

100. ‘The Vice-President to be ex officio Chairman of the Council of States’


(A) 64 (B) 65

(C) 63 (D) 66

101. ‘Power of President to grant pardons ,etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in

certain cases’


(A) 70 (B) 71

(C) 72 (D) 73

102. Attorney-General for India. shall hold office during the pleasure of

(A) Hon. chief justice of Hon. Supreme Court

(B) Hon law minister

(C) Hon prime minister

(D) The President,

103. ‘It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of

the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and

proposals for legislation’


(A) 77 (B) 78

(C) 79 (D) 80

104. ‘Qualification for membership of Parliament’ is mentioned under which Article of Indian

constitution?

(A) 81 (B) 82

(C) 83 (D) 84

DRF - A ] 15 P.T.O.

105. ‘Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by’


(C) law minister (D) finance minister

106. ‘The law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory

of India.’


(A) 140 (B) 141

(C) 142 (D) 143

107. ‘Duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General.’ are mentioned under which

Article of Indian constitution?

(A) 147 (B) 148

(C) 149 (D) 150

108. ‘The executive power of the State shall be vested in’

(A) chief secretary of the state (B) chief minister

(C) the Governor (D) the president

109. ‘Every Legislative Assembly of every State, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for’

(A) six years (B) four years

(C) five years (D) none of above

110. The provisions for ‘Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of Speaker’

are mentioned under which Article of Indian constitution?

(A) 178 (B) 179

(C) 180 (D) 181

111. The ‘Disqualifications for membership’ for a member of the Legislative Assembly or

Legislative Council of a State’ are mentioned under which Article of Indian constitution?

(A) 189 (B) 190

(C) 191 (D) 192

112. ‘No discussion shall take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of

any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.’


(A) 206 (B) 208

(C) 211 (D) 214

113. ‘Every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court

including the power to punish for contempt of itself.’ This provision is mentioned under

which Article of Indian constitution?

(A) 210 (B) 112

(C) 213 (D) 215


114. ‘The Union territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi

(hereafter in this Part referred to as the National Capital Territory) and the administrator

thereof appointed under article 239 shall be designated as the Lieutenant Governor’


(A) 239 AA (B) 240

(C) 241 (D) 242

115. ‘Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats ’are mentioned under which Article

of Indian constitution?

(A) 243A (B) 243C

(C) 243F (D) 243G

116. ‘Constitution of Finance Commission to review financial position. Of the Panchayats’


(A) 243 I (B) 243J

(C) 243K (D) 243 M

117. The provision of ‘Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas’ is mentioned under


(A) 244 (B) 245

(C) 245 (D) 247

118. ‘Freedom to manage religious affairs’This provision is mentioned under which Article of

Indian constitution?

(A) 24 (B) 25

(C) 26 (D) 28

119. Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.’This provision is mentioned under


(A) 24 (B) 25

(C) 26 (D) 27

120. Under article 280. (1) who constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a

Chairman and four other members to be appointed by


(C) finance minister (D) finance secretary

121. ‘Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States’


(A) 315 (B) 314

(C) 312 (D) 311

122. The expenses of the State Public Service Commission shall be charged on the Consolidated

Fund of the State.


(A) 321 (B) 322

(C) 323 (D) 324

DRF - A ] 17 P.T.O.

123. TRIBUNALS are constituted under the provisions of which part?

(A) part x (B) part xi

(C) part xii (D) part XIVA

124. No person shall be ineligible for inclusion in any such roll or claim to be included in any

special electoral roll for any such constituency on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex

or any of them.


(A) 324 (B) 325

(C) 327 (D) 328

125. ‘Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People.’


(A) 328 (B) 330

(C) 332 (D) 334

126. Under section 2 F “information” means

1. any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails,

2. any material in any form opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks,

contracts,

3. any material in any form reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any

electronic form

4. any material in any form relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public

authority under any other law for the time being in force;

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

127. Right to information and obligations of public authorities are mentioned under section

(A) 3 (B) 4

(C) 5 (D) 6

128. The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be appointed

by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of—

1. the Prime Minister

2. the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

3. a Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister

4. chief minister of one of the state

Select correct answer

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

129. Who was the first European to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrel of indian

princes with a view to acquire the territories?

(A) Clive (B) Duplex

(C) Albuquerque (D) Warren Hasting


130. Which one of the following is an important historical novel written during the later half of

the 19th Century?

(A) RastGoftar (B) DurgeshNandni

(C) Maratha (D) Nibandhamala

131. Who was remembered as the pioneer of economic nationalism?

(A) Bipin Chandra Pal (B) G K Gokhale

(C) R C Dutta (D) none of above

132. The Moplah rebellion of 1921broke out in?

(A) Assam (B) Kerala

(C) Punjab (D) Bengal

133. The federation of chamber of commerce and industry(FICCI) was founded in 1927 by

(A) Birla and Tata (B) Birla and Thakurdas

(C) Tata and Thakurdas (D) no one of above

134. Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.’This provision is mentioned under


(A) 24 (B) 25

(C) 26 (D) 27

135. The second Round Table conference broke down because of

(A) Gandhiji’s fast up to death (B) separate elections for minority

(C) Gandhiji not being treated on equal footing with the representative of the King.

(D) Government’s unwillingness to release all political prisoners

136. The first feature film (talkie) to be produced in India was

(A) Hatimtai (B) AlamAra

(C) Poundalik (D) Raja Harishchandra

137. Kunwarsingh, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857 belongs to

(A) Bihar (B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Rajasthan (D) Uttar Pradesh

138. The Indian National Army came in to existence in 1943 at

(A) Japan (B) Burma

(C) Singapore (D) Malaya

139. Who headed the interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?

(A) Rajendra Prasad (B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Sardar Vallabhibhai Patel (D) Rajagopalachari

140. The leader of Bardoli Satyagraha (1925) was

(A) Sardar vallabhi Patel (B) mahatma Gandhi

(C) vithalbhai Patel (D) Mahatma Gandhi

141. Subesh Chandra Bose formed the political party after he broke away in 1939 from congress

(A) Indian freedom party (B) Azad party

(C) Revolutionary party (D) Forward Bloc

DRF - A ] 19 P.T.O.

142. Who among the following were official congress negotiators with Cripps mission?

(A) Gandhiji and Jawarlal Nehru

(B) J B Kripalani and C Rajgopalchari

(C) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad

(D) Dr.Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

143. The satyagraha for peasants of Kheda was organized because

1. the administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.

2. the administration proposed to introduce permanent

Settlement in Gujarat

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) both 1 and 2 (D) neither 1 nor 2

144. At present in NCR and other areas ,which Indian Emission Standards for 4 wheel vehicles

is applicable?

(A) India 2000 (B) Bharat stage II

(C) Bharat stage III (D) Bharat stage IV

145. Places associated with persons are mentioned below.

From the following, which pair is not correct?

(A) Shantinketan-Rabin Nath Tagore (B) Jalianwala Bag-General Dyer

(C) watrloo- NepoleonBonapart (D) Bardoli-VinobaBhave

146. From the following which is not borrowed features of constitution from U. K.

(A) Cabinet System of Ministers (B) Post of PM

(C) Parliamentary Type of Govt. (D) Fundamental Rights

147. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Quit India Movement of 1942

(A) it was led by Gandhiji

(B) it was non-violent movement

(C) it was spontaneous movement.

(D) it did not attract the labour class in the whole nation.

148. With reference to Indian Freedom Movement Usha Mehta is well-known for-

(A) running secret congress radio

(B) participating in second round table conference

(C) leading a contingent of Indian National Army.

(D) assisting the formation of interim Government

149. Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the emergence of

Moderates and Extremists?

(A) Swadeshi Movement (B) quit India Movement

(C) Non cooperation Movement (D) civil disobedience movement


150. The Rowlett Act aimed at?

(A) compulsory economic support to war efforts.

(B) imprisonment without trial and summary procedure for trial

(C) suppression on Khiilafat movement

(D) imposition of restriction of press

151. The term ‘Naxalite’ is derived from the village ‘Naxalbari’ located in the state of

(A) West Bengal (B) Chhattisgarh

(C) Odisha (D) Jharkhand

152. Who among the following is/are members of the electoral college for the election of both,

thePresident as well as the Vice President?

1. Elected members of the Parliament

2. Nominated members of the Parliament

3. Elected members of the state legislative assemblies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

153. WannaCry’, recently seen in the news, is which one of the following types of malware?

(A) Virus (B) Worm

(C) Trojan Horse (D) Ransomware

154. Which one of the following vaccines was most recently introduced as part of the

government’s Universal ImmunisationProgramme?

(A) Measles-Rubella vaccine (B) Mycobacterium indicuspranii vaccine

(C) Rotovac (D) Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

155. A trade integration initiative, the Pacific Alliance is composed of

(A) Indonesia, Philippines, South Korea and Japan

(B) Chile, Peru, Colombia and Mexico

(C) Australia, New Zealand, Chile and Peru

(D) China, Japan, Canada and the United States of America

156. Which one of the following neighbor of India has not signed up for China’s ‘One Belt, One

Road’ initiative?

(A) Bangladesh (B) Bhutan

(C) Nepal (D) Myanmar

157. The ‘Bharatiya Nirdeshak Dravya’ will

1. Manufacture paper and ink for currency notes

2. Save foreign exchange by reducing India’s dependence on imports



(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

DRF - A ] 21 P.T.O.

158. Consider the following statements:

1. The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) is an inter-ministerial body

2. The Minister of Finance is the ex-officio chairman of the FIPB

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



159. ‘SHAKTI’, a scheme recently approved by the Union Cabinet, is

(A) A rural women-empowerment initiative by inculcating in them a habit of savings and

proper utilisation of financial resources

(B) A special loan scheme aimed at supporting entrepreneurship among urban women by

providing certain concessions

(C) A campaign to convince state governments to devolve ‘ownership’ of planning and

development functions in Panchayatsamitis and gram panchayats

(D) A new coal allocation policy for the power sector

160. Which of the following statements with reference to the Maternity Benefit Programme is/

are correct?

1. It is in accordance with provisions in the National Food Security Act

2. It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating mothers




161. Which of the following statements associated with National Legal Services Authority

(NALSA) is/are correct?

1. It has been set up under the provisions of the 11th and 12th Schedule to the Constitution

2. The facility called ‘Legal Assistance Establishments’ will be set up by it all over the

country

3. To give effect to its policies and directions, State Legal Services Authority have been

constituted in every state

Select the correct answer using codes given below:


(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

162. A Pressurised Heavy-Water Reactor (PHWR) utilises

(A) Enriched uranium as fuel

(B) Heavy water as both a neutron moderator and a coolant

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

163. The recent approval given by the Union Cabinet for the construction of ten units of PHWRs

will form a part of which Stage of India’s Nuclear Power Programme?

(A) Stage I (B) Stage II

(C) Stage III (D) Stage IV


164. The MadhavChitale Committee recently submitted its report, which was related to the

issue of

(A) Identification of rivers for speedy implementation of the National Waterways Project

(B) De-siltation of River Ganga

(C) Pattern of management and funding for inter-state river interlinking projects

(D) Role of the Farakka Barrage in causing floods in the state of Bihar

165. Which country became the first in the world to ban mining of metals for environmental

protection?

(A) Norway (B) Australia

(C) Venezuela (D) El Salvador

166. The Union Ministry of Women and Child Development recently released a manual titled

“Living conditions in Institutions for Children in conflict with Law”. This manual was

prepared by the Ministry

(A) At the behest of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs

(B) At the behest of the Supreme Court

(C) As was mandated by the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, 1989

(D) As was mandated by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

167. The letters “CE” are often seen imprinted on certain products. What is this mark?

(A) Literally meaning “European Conformity”, a product that is granted permission to

use the mark can freely be moved and sold within the European Union single market

(B) It is an internationally accepted standard for the safety certification of electronics

(C) A United States’ certification for conformity to the country’s federal environmental

protection legislations

(D) The International Organisation for Standardizations’ certification for conformance of

a product to standard “performance levels”

168. Which one of the following issues the “Global Competitiveness Report” periodically?

(A) The World Bank

(B) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development

(C) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development

(D) The World Economic Forum

169. The chairman and members of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are

appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of

1. Prime Minister

2. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

3. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

4. Leader of the opposition in Lok Sabha

5. Leader of the opposition in Rajya Sabha

6. Union Home Minister

Select the correct answer using codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 1, 4 and 6 only

(C) 2, 3 and 5 only (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

DRF - A ] 23 P.T.O.

170. The DAISY Forum of India (DFI)

(A) Is an association of not-for-profit organisations from India

(B) Works to protect critically endangered plant species

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

171. The following statements:

1. With the help of the Government e-Marketplace, various ministries and agencies of the

Government can procure both, common-use goods as well as services

2. India is not a signatory to the World Trade Organisation’s agreement on government

procurement




172. With reference to the country’s longest river bridge, which of the following statements is/

are correct?

1. It has been built over River Lohit

2. It reduces the distance and travel time between Assam and Meghalaya




173. Who can request the Law Commission of India (LCI) to examine a subject/issue?

1. Union Government

2. Supreme Court

3. LCI can suo moto take up an issue for study



(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

174. Implementation of the “SEFASU” scheme will help

(A) Sugar mills clear sugarcane arrears

(B) Fishermen, financially, to construct houses, community halls and community tube-

wells for drinking water

(C) Create scientific storage capacity in rural areas to meet the quirements of farmers for

storing farm produce

(D) Eliminate child labour in hazardous industries by 2020

175. The ‘e-Migrate’ programme

(A) Provides reliable emigration services in a transparent manner

(B) Is an open, online database of all brick kilns in India

(C) Offers convenient and cost-effective skilling programmes for those seeking to emigrate

to countries in west Asia

(D) None of the above


176. Showroom-cum-restaurants bearing the brand name “ONE” is an initiative of the

(A) Ministry of Tourism

(B) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

(C) Ministry for Development of North-East Region

(D) Ministry of Textiles and Ministry of Minority Affairs

177. “Champions of the Earth” award is

(A) Part of an initiative by Jane Goodall’s ‘Grass Roots & Shoots’ to spot young, talented

people who showcase technological inventions that can improve our planet’s health

(B) Bestowed to outstanding environmental leaders by the German Environment foundation

(C) The United Nation’s highest environmental honour

(D) Enable Earth Foundation’s lifetime achievement award to individuals as well as

organisations for having inspired critical action on behalf of the global environment

178. In Economics, “Comparative Advantage”

1. Is said to be possessed by a person who produces a good at a lower opportunity cost

2. Can help explain the benefits of free trade


(A) 1 Only (B) 2 Only


179. The top litchi producing state in the country is

(A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Uttarakhand

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Bihar

180. In the Index of Eight Core Industries, which one of the following is given the highest weight?

(A) Coal production (B) Electricity generation

(C) Petroleum Refinery production (D) Steel production

181. The Green Climate Fund has been established by the

(A) World Bank

(B) United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity

(C) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

(D) Bonn Convention

182. The recently launched premier train “Tejas Express” will run between

(A) Hyderabad and Pune (B) Mumbai and Goa

(C) Delhi and Jaipur (D) Bangalore and Chennai

183. Known popularly as the “Green Oscars”, two Indians recently were recently bestowed

with this award for their efforts in wildlife conservation. This award refers to

(A) Whitley Award (B) Champions of the Earth Award

(C) Goldman Environmental Prize (D) IUCN Heritage Heroes Award

DRF - A ] 25 P.T.O.

184. Which of the following tiger reserves are located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh?

1. Orang 2. Kamlang 3. Corbett



(C) 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only

185. According to the “Plant Discoveries 2016”, brought out by the Botanical Survey of India,

most discoveries of new plant species last year were made in which one of the following

geographical regions?

(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (B) Western Ghats

(C) Eastern Himalayas (D) Western Himalayas

186. The DeenDayalUpadhyayaGrameenKaushalyaYojana (DDUGKY) is a flagship programme

of the

(A) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

(B) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

(C) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

(D) Ministry of Rural Development

187. The “Hargila Army”, seen recently in the news, is

(A) A voluntary organisation of biotech engineers, offering training and education

opportunities to rural women towards leading a sustainable livelihood

(B) The Indian Armed Forces’ first division of the Mountain Strike Corps

(C) An all-female team of conservationists dedicated to protecting a species of an endangered

stork

(D) None of the above

188. Mission Innovation”, a global initiative, seeks to

(A) Develop solutions to the most pressing social problems across democracies

(B) Promote research particularly in areas of efficient energy storage systems

(C) Accelerate clean energy innovation

(D) Revolutionise space technology, with the ultimate goal of enabling people to live on

other planets

189. Consider the following statements:

1. In case of any delay in conducting the election of new President by any reason, the Vice

President acts as President until a new President is elected

2. When a vacancy occurs in the office of Vice President for any reason other than sickness,

the Chief Justice of India acts as the Vice President until a new Vice President is elected

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?




190. An “exclusive Hill Area Development Programme” was recently announced for which one

of the following regions?

(A) Nilgiris (B) Nallamala Hills

(C) Northeast India (D) Jharkhand, Chattisgarh and Odisha

191. With reference to the election to the office of the President of India, which of the following

statements is/are correct? 1. Political parties cannot issue any whip to their MPs and MLAs

in the matter of voting 2. Electronic Voting Machines are utilised in recording the choice of

electors




192. A new “Safe Harbour Regime” was recently notified by the

(A) Ministry of Finance

(B) Ministry of Mines

(C) Ministry of Shipping

(D) Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation

193. The tradition of “Baluchari” sari weaving originated in the present-day state of

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Odisha

(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) West Bengal

194. India’s first 2G (Second Generation) Bioethanol refinery will be set up in

(A) Gujarat (B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Maharashtra (D) Punjab

195. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in

(A) USA (B) Australia

(C) United Kingdom (D) Canada

196. Tele-Law’, recently launched by the Government of India, is

(A) A channel that will educate the public regarding their Constitutional and legal rights

(B) A web portal for the Higher Judiciary to conduct legal proceedings online

(C) A scheme that makes legal aid easily accessible to marginalised communities living in

rural areas

(D) An annual conference to be organised by judges of the Supreme Court to deliver

courses to judges of the lower rungs of judiciary

197. Which one of the following Indian states does not share its borders with Myanmar?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Nagaland

(C) Mizoram (D) Tripura

DRF - A ] 27 P.T.O.

198. The Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance Bill, 2017 will

1. Help resolve insolvency in financial sector entities such as insurance companies

2. Set up an insurance pool which provides capacity for insurance coverage to non-financial

sector entities for any insolvency-related issues




199. The ‘Carmichael Mine’, recently in the news, is located in

(A) Meghalaya (B) Odisha

(C) Goa (D) none of the above

200. ANUGA’ and ‘SIAL’, recently in the news, are

(A) Investors’ summits exclusively for India’s North Eastern Region

(B) Deep Ocean Mission’s underwater unmanned probes

(C) India’s seed banks that will complement the Svalbard Global Seed Vault

(D) International Food Exhibitions


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